Parasitology & Mycology MCQS

November 2020

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is NOT the commonest route of transmission of parasitic infection?

(A) Inhalation*

(B) Bite by a vector

(D) Oral intake of contaminated food and water

2. A the single cell parasites known as

(A) cestode

(B) protozoa*

(D) trematode

3. What is the definition of host?

(A) The organism that lives within a dead organism

(B) The organism that in or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm*

(C) The organism that acquires some of its basic nutritional requirements through its intimate contact with another living organism--parasite

(D) The organism that a living carrier that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non-infected host--vector

4. When Balantidium coli infection is suspected, what specimen would you choose to send to the laboratory?

(A) blood

(B) sputum

(D) fresh urine

5. Which of the following parasites is a protozoa?

(A) Filiariasis

(B) Tricuriasis

(D) Schistosomiasis

6. Which of the following mosquito can spread Malaria disease?

(A) Culex

(B) Aedes

(D) Mansonian

7. American Trypanosomiasis is also known as

(A) Chaga's disease*

(B) blackwater fever

(D) traveler's diarrhea

8. Which of the following is the most common liver fluke of man?

(A) Fasciola hepatica*

(B) Fasciolopsis buski--small intestines

(D) Paragonimus westermani--lungs

9. When Fasciolopsis buski infection is suspected, what specimen would you choose to send to the laboratory?

(A) urine

(B) stool*

(D) sputum

10. Which either one parasitic infection can be prevented by cooking crab and crayfish?

(A) Fasciola hepatica--aquatic plant or water column

(B) Clonorchis sinensis*

(D) Paragonimus westermani--aquatic vegetation

11. Where are the adult Trichuris trichuria worms normally found?

(A) In the liver

(B) In the heart

(D) In the intestine*

12. What is most common hookworms that infect human?

(A) Endoliman nana

(B) Necator americanus*

(D) Trichinella spiralis

13. Which of the parasitic infection can be transmitted via eating green vegetables and salad?

(A) Plasmodium vivax--mosquito

(B) Necator ameranus--soil

(D) Schistosoma japonicum--water

14. The reservoir for Taenia solium is

(A) pig*

(B) cattle

(D) human

15. Which of the following parasites can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Fasciolopsis buski

(B) Necator americanus

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

16. The role of mycologist studies about

(A) Virus

(B) fungi*

(D) bacteria

17. The mould of fungi based on classification of

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphological*

18. The characteristic of fungi is

(A) have chitin*

(B) have cellulose

(D) have photosynthetic

19. The following is a characteristic of yeast

(A) mucoid*

(B) velvety

(D) Powdery

20. What of the following is non-selective media for fungi growth in the laboratory?

(A) Mycosel agar

(B) CHROM agar

(D) Sabouraud dextrose agar*--Czapek's agar, PDA, BHI

21. How many days for saprophytes fungi take to growth?

(A) 1-2 days

(B) 3-5 days*

(D) 14 days or more--dermatophytes

22. The usual site of Tinea capitis lesion is the

(A) nails--unguium

(B) scalp*

(D) genital urinary--cruris

23. Which of the following organisms is the etiological agent for Coccidioidomycosis?

(A) Candida albican

(B) Coccidioides immitis*

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. What type of sample can be used to diagnose Sporotrichosis?

(A) pus*--aspirate, biopsy

(B) hair

(D) feces

25. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test*

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

26. Which one of these steps can improve treatment for mycoses?

(A) early diagnosis*

(B) relative toxic therapy

(D) limiting diagnostic options

27. All the following diagnostic tests are used for Candida albicans EXCEPT

(A) ELISA test

(B) immunodiffusion test*

(D) identification germ tube test

28. What is common name of disease caused by Madurella spp.?

(A) Mycetoma*

(B) Coccidioidomycosis

(D) Vulvovaginal candidiasis

29. The common name of the disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii infection is

(A) Pityriasis

(B) Cave disease

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease*

30. Which of the following statements is TRUE about fungals infection?

(A) Tinea versicolor causes mild scaling, mottling of skin.*

(B) White piedra causes dark, hard concretions on scalp hairs.

(D) Black piedra is whitish or colored masses on the long hairs of the body.

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Compare between yeast and mould. (4 Marks)

yeast

spore
budding
unicell

mold

sexual
asexual
multicellular filaments, hyphae

b. Explain the characteristics of fungi (6 Marks)

eukaryotic

facultatively anaerobic or strictly aerobic

heterotrophs

chitin

unicell

no cellulose

2. a. Determine FIVE (5) morphological characterization of fungus. (5 Marks)

based on anamorphic phase

variety of reproductive asexual propagules

variety of hyphael types

texture of thallus

topography of thallus

color of thallus

b. Describe initial observations in the study of fungus isolates. (5 Marks)

3. a. Describe the general characteristics of trematode. (4 Marks)

2 suckers

one mouth & acetabulum

most flat, leaf shape

hermaphroditic

b. Compare between Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma haematobium regarding on method of transmission to human, location adult parasite in the human body and eggs of parasite. (6 Marks)

cercaria burrow into skin
portal veins of large intestine
eggs with lateral spine in feces, usually in float

cercaria burrow into skin
adults in veins of urinary bladder
eggs with terminal spine in urine

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.

Question 1

Describe on Candida albicans regarding characteristics, method of transmission, type of diseases and laboratory diagnosis to support the answers. (10 Marks)

Question 2

Explain major types of medically important nematode including name of nematode, method of transmission and location adult parasite in the human body. (10 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss major types of medically important protozoa including name of protozoa, method of transmission and location adult parasite in the human body. (20 Marks)

November 2019

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. The following are parasite transmitted by the faecal-oral route EXCEPT

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Fasciola hepatica

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis*

2. Which of the following is TRUE regarding zoonosis?

(A) A fungi disease in human who is normally the host but also can infects animal.

(B) A fungi disease in animal which is normally the host but also can infects man.*

(D) A parasitic disease in animal which is normally the host but also can infects man.

3. Which of the following specimens should be examined in order to detect the presence of Ascaris lumbricoides?

I. urine

II. blood

III. faeces

IV. sputum--larvae

(A) I

(B) I and II

(D) I, II and III

4. What is the transmission vector for Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) Sand fly--leishmania

(B) Tsetse fly*

(D) Anopheles mosquito

5. A man normally get infected with Trypanosoma cruzi through

(A) ingestion of eggs in the food

(B) ingestion of metacercaria in the water

(D) Anopheles sp. mosquito injects promastigotes into the skin

6. Which of the following is the most common liver fluke in man?

(A) Fasciola hepatica*

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

7. Which of the following laboratory diagnosis may be used to confirm Necator americanus infections?

(A) egg detected in stool

(B) larvae detection in urine

(D) no eosinophilia in the blood

8. What specimen would you choose to send to the laboratory to identify Paragonimus westermani infection?

(A) urine

(B) blood

(D) cerebrospinal fluid

9. In which of the following host does sexual reproduction of parasites occur?

(A) saprobes host

(B) definitive host*

(D) intermediate host

10. A man get infected with Fasciolopsis buski by ingesting

(A) redia in the snail

(B) sporocyst in the water

(D) metacercaria on vegetation*

11. What is the location of adult Wuchereria bancrofti in human body?

(A) veins

(B) arteries

(D) capillaries in the lungs

12. What type of tapeworm infection can man get by eating under-cooked infected beef?

(A) Taenia solium

(B) Taenia saginata*

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

13. What is the disease caused by Leishmania donovani?

(A) Malaria

(B) Leishmaniasis*

(D) African sleeping sickness

14. Which of the following parasite can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Taenia saginata

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about parasite?

(A) Endoparasite is a parasite that lives on the external surface of another living organism.*

(B) Vector is a living carrier that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non-infected host.

(D) Medical parasitology the study and medical implications of parasites that infect humans.

16. Which of the following is TRUE about mycoses?

(A) It is a study of fungi.

(B) It is a study of parasites.

(D) It is a disease caused by a fungus.*

17. The classification of mould is based on

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

18. Which of the following is the properties of fungi?

(A) chitin*

(B) cellulose

(D) phospholipids

19. Which of the following is a feature of yeast?

(A) moist*

(B) velvety

(D) granular

20. What is the definition of heterotrophs?

(A) An organism that can cause harm to the host.

(B) An organism that feeds on the living tissue of a host.*

(D) An organism that can absorb food through hyphae that grow into the food source.

21. Which of the following is a selective culture media?

(A) Oxgall agar*

(B) Czapek’s agar

(D) Sabouraud dextrose agar

22. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test*

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

23. What is the common name of disease cause by Tinea versicolor?

(A) pityriasis*

(B) cave disease

(D) black fever disease

24. What is the clinical sample for Blastomycosis diagnosis?

(A) urine

(B) feces

(D) sputum*

25. Which of the following serodiagnosis is used to detect Coccidioides immitis?

(A) Latex agglutination

(B) Immunodiffusion test

(D) immunofluorescent-antibody test

26. What is the clinical sample that can be used to diagnose Tinea unguium?

(A) urine

(B) feces

(D) nail clipping*

27. The following statement can cause poor treatment for mycoses EXCEPT:

(A) high doses of antifungals*

(B) relatively toxic therapy to patient

(D) limited diagnostic options to detect mycoses

28. What is common name of disease caused by Histoplasma capsulatum?

(A) cave disease*

(B) black fever disease

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease

29. Lesions site cause by Tinea capitis can be found with

(A) nail

(B) scalp*

(D) beard

30. Which of the following fungi causes “jock itch” affects groin and scrotal regions?

(A) Tinea cruris*

(B) Tinea corporis

(D) Tinea versicolor

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. (a) As a medical laboratory technology you are going into a village where there is an outbreak of Malaria.

i. List the FOUR (4) parasites cause malaria. (4 Marks)

plasmodium falciparum, vivax, ovale, malariae

ii. Name the vector for malaria parasites. (1 Mark)

Anopheles mosquito

iii. What is the clinical specimen should be examined in order to detect the presence of Malaria parasite? (1 Mark)

blood

(b) Briefly describe Amebiasis (4 Marks)

Entamoeba histolytica

dysentery, diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue, abdominal pain

ingestion of contaminated food (undercooked meat), water, hands

feces

2. Briefly explain FOUR (4) major types of medically important nematode regarding their names, method of transmission and the laboratory diagnosis. (10 Marks)

Trichuris trichuria

whipworm
ingest eggs
hatch
larvae to colon
cecal mucosa
dx: stool O&P, eosinophilia

Trichinella spiralis

ingestion of encysted larvae in undercooked meat
small bowel, mate
females burrow into mucosa
enter blood
pulmonary circulation
skeletal muscle
encyst
dx: eosinophilia, muscle

Necator

hookworm
filariform larvae in soil
penetrate skin
circulate to pulmonary capillaries
penetrate alveoli
jejunal mucosa
dx: stool, eosinophilia, larvae in sputum

Enterobius vermicularis

pinworm
ingest eggs
hatch in small bowel
mature
cecal mucosa
dx: scotch tape, no eosinophilia

Ascaris

ingest eggs
hatch in small bowel
penetrate into lymphatics/veins
thro liver to lungs
penetrate alveoli up to bronchi
jejunum
dx: eggs in stool, larvae in sputum

3. (a) Explain the characteristic of fungi (5 Marks)

heterotrophs

eukaryotic

facultatively anaerobic or strictly aerobic

no cellulose

chitin

(b) Briefly describe the important of fungi. (5 Marks)

important decomposers

food and medicine

disease causing: ringworm

disease fighting: penicillin

Fungus-Plant Root Association

lichen

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. Describe Candida albicans regarding its characteristics, disease cause and laboratory diagnosis. (10 Marks)

2. Explain the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolate. (10 Marks)

3. Discuss on schistosomiasis regarding type of causative parasites with infective stage, infection location and laboratory diagnosis respectively. (20 Marks)

August 2019

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. What is the definition of ectoparasite?

(A) The organism that lives on the external surface of another living organism.*

(B) The organism in which the parasite lives during a period of its development only.

(D) The organism that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non infected host.

2. What the disease cause by Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) Malaria

(B) Trichomoniasis

(D) African sleeping sickness*

3. What is the vector for Leishmania donovani?

(A) Sand fly*

(B) Tsetse fly

(D) Anopheles mosquito

4. Which of the following is a vector for Plasmodium vivax?

(A) Tsetse fly

(B) Aedes mosquito

(D) Anopheles mosquito*

5. Which of the following parasites can be diagnosed using a stool sample?

(A) Ghiardia lamblia*

(B) Trypanosoma brucei

(D) Plasmodium malariae

6. Which of the following is in life cycle of trematode?

(A) sporocyst*

(B) sporozoites

(D) trypomastigotes

7. Which of the following is an intestinal fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica

(B) Fasciolopsis buski*

(D) Schistosoma haematobium

8. Which part of organ in the human body adult Fasciola hepatica could be found?

(A) lung

(B) liver*

(D) brain

9. What is the scientific name for Hookworm?

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Necator americanus*

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

10. Which of the following parasites causes Loeffler’s syndrome?

(A) Balantidium coli

(B) Trichuris trichuria--asymptomatic to intestinal

(D) Enterobius vermicularis--enterobiasis

11. How would you diagnose Brugia malayi in human body?

(A) egg in the stool

(B) cercaria in the urine

(D) metacercaria in the sputum

12. What is the parasite that cause elephantiasis?

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Wucheria pacifica*

(D) Entamoeba histolytica

13. Which of the following is TRUE about Taenia saginata?

(A) beef tapeworm*

(B) pork tapeworm

(D) it can be diagnosed through ELISA test

14. Which of the following is a tapeworm?

(A) Balantidium coli

(B) Trichinella sprialis

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following can be used for classification of yeast?

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphological*

16. Which is a function of fungi?

(A) intermediate host

(B) chemical detector

(D) important decomposers*

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of fungus?

(A) use seed to reproduce

(B) cell walls do not have a chitin

(D) cell walls do not have cellulose*

18. Which is a non-selective media use for culturing fungi?

(A) Oxgall agar

(B) Mycosel agar

(D) Sabouraud dextrose agar*

19. Which of the following can be used for morphological characterization of fungus?

(A) width of thallus

(B) height of thallus

(D) topography of thallus*

20. Which of the following is NOT a procedure in specimen collection and transport of fungi?

(A) Specimen container must be properly labeled.

(B) Specimen must be material from the actual infection site.

(D) Specimen must be contaminated with other microbes from the environment.*--carefully the contamination

must be established for the best chance of recovery of causative microorganisms (optimal times)

must be used to ensure optimal recovery of microorganisms

obtain cultures before the treatment

21. Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic test for Candida albicans?

(A) ELISA test

(B) immunodiffusion test*

(D) identification germ tube test

22. What is the common name of a disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii?

(A) Pityriasis*

(B) Cave disease

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease

23. How many days are required to take saprophytes fungi growth?

(A) 1-2 days

(B) 3-5 days*

(D) 14 days or more

24. Which of the following serodiagnosis is used to detect Coccidioides immitis?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test

(D) indirect fluorescent antibody test

25. What sample can be used to diagnose blastomycosis?

(A) hair

(B) urine

(D) sputum*

26. Which of the following is a better treatment for mycoses?

(A) low doses of antibiotic

(B) high doses of antifungals*

(D) high doses of natrium chloride fluid

27. Which of the following fungi can cause Cave disease?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Coccidioides immitis

(D) Histoplasma capsulatum*

28. Which lesions sites can be caused by Tinea corporis?

(A) nail

(B) body*

(D) groin

29. Which of the following causes Athlete’s foot disease?

(A) Tinea pedis*--manuum

(B) Tinea cruris

(D) Tinea versicolor

30. Aspergillus fumigatus is primarily transmitted to human through the

(A) sexual intercourse

(B) inhalation of spores*

(D) ingestion of cysts in contaminated water

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define parasite. ( 2 Marks)

acquire some of its basic nutritional requirements through intimate contact with other

b. Briefly explain regarding name of medically important trematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (8 Marks)

2. a. Define fungi. ( 2 Marks)

eukaryotic, spore bearing, heterotrophic organisms that produce extracellular enzymes and absorb their nutrition

b. Briefly describe regarding name of medically important systemic mycoses, name of the causative fungus and method of transmission to human. (8 Marks)

Coccidioidomycosis

Coccidioides immitis
inhale spores

Histoplasmosis

Histoplasma capsulatum
inhale spores

Blastomycosis

Blastomyces dermatitidis
inhale spores convert to yeast, multiply in lungs

3. a. Compare and contrast between yeast and mould. (4 Marks)

b. Describe the initial observation in the study of fungus isolates. (6 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. Discuss the characteristics and important of fungi. (10 Marks)

Characteristics

eukaryotic
facultatively anaerobic, strictly aerobic
chemotropic
heterotrophs
spores
chitin
unicell
no photosynthetic
no cellulose

Important

decomposer
food
medicine
disease causing
disease fighting
Fungus-Plant Root Association
Lichen

2. Explain FOUR (4) major types of medically important nematode. Give an appropriate explanation regarding names of nematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (10 Marks)

3. Explain SEVEN (7) major types of medically important protozoa. Give an appropriate explanation regarding name of protozoa, disease and it vector or method of transmission to human to support the answers. (20 Marks)

April 2019

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following disease is caused by Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) malaria

(B) leishmaniasis

(D) African sleeping sickness*

2. What is the scientific name for pinworm?

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Wucheria bancrofti

(D) Enterobius vermicularis*

3. Which of the following organism is a vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?

(A) sand fly

(B) tsetse fly

(D) Anopheles mosquito

4. Which of the following parasites is transmitted to the definitive host by burrowing into the skin?

(A) Ghiardia lamblia

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

5. The following are in digene life cycle of trematodes, EXCEPT

(A) egg

(B) larva*

(D) metacercaria

6. Which of the following parasites is a blood protozoa?

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Balantidium coli

(D) Plasmodium falciparum*

7. Which of the following parasites can cause Loeffler’s syndrome?

(A) Giardia sp

(B) Schistosoma sp

(D) Paragonimus sp

8. Which of the following parasites is a liver fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica*

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

9. What is the definition of vector?

(A) the organism that lives within a dead organism

(B) the organism that lives within another living organism

(D) the organism that acquires some of its basic nutritional requirements through its intimate contact with another living organism

10. Which of the following parasites is the pork tapeworm?

(A) Brugia malayi

(B) Taenia solium*

(D) Trichinella sprialis

11. The following parasites are transmitted by the faecal-oral route EXCEPT

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Leishmania donovani*

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

12. What is the definition for definitive host?

(A) an organism in, or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm--host

(B) an organism in which the parasite lives during one period of its life cycle--intermediate

(D) an organism that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected host to a non-infected host

13. Diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides in human is done by detecting

(A) egg in the urine

(B) redia in the feces

(D) microfilariae in the blood

14. Which of the following parasites can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Fasciolopsis buski

(B) Necator americanus

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following parasites can cause cysticercosis?

(A) Taenia solium*

(B) Trichinella sprialis

(D) Trypanosoma brucei

16. The classification of mould is based on

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

17. Mycoses caused by the following effect EXCEPT

(A) allergy

(B) colonization--invasion

(D) mycotoxicosis

18. What is the definition of saprophytes?

(A) an organism that can cause harm to the host

(B) an organism that feeds on the living tissue of a host

(D) two organisms that enjoy mutually beneficial relationship

19. Which of the following agar is a non-selective culture media?

(A) oxgall agar

(B) mycosel agar

(D) niger seed agar

20. The following morphological characterization of fungus are true EXCEPT

(A) size of thallus*

(B) colour of thallus

(D) topography of thallus

21. Which one of the following statements about collecting and transporting mycology specimen is TRUE?

(A) the culture container for the fungus is not properly labeled

(B) the sample to detect the fungus must be in sufficient quantity*

(D) the sample to detect the fungus must be of material from the every part of human body

22. The usual site of Tinea corporis lesion is the

(A) nails

(B) scalp

(D) genital urinary

23. What is the fungus that causes histoplasmosis?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Histoplasma capsulatum*

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test*

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

25.What type of sample can be used to diagnose blastomycosis?

(A) hair

(B) urine

(D) sputum*

26. Which one of these steps can improve treatment for mycoses?

(A) early diagnosis*

(B) relative toxic therapy

(D) limiting diagnostic options

27. All of the following are diagnostic tests for Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT

(A) culture

(B) india ink

(D) identification Germ tube*

28. Which of the following statements regarding Candida albicans is NOT TRUE?

(A) Candida albicans is one of the important causes of cave disease*--histoplasma capsulatum

(B) Candida albicans is one of the important causes of vulvovaginitis

(D) Candida albicans is normal flora of the oral cavity, genitalia, large intestine or skin of 20% of humans

29. The common name of the disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii infection is

(A) pityriasis

(B) cave disease

(D) rose-gardener’s disease*

30. Which of the following statements are FALSE about fungal infection?

(A) Tinea versicolor causes mild scaling and mottling of skin

(B) Black piedra causes dark, hard concretions on scalp hairs

(D) Tinea unguium cause “jock itch” which affects the groin and the scrotal regions*--cruris

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Explain briefly on the major types of medically important systemic mycoses. (5 Marks)

Coccidioidomycosis by Coccidioides immitis

Histoplasmosis by Histoplasma capsulatum

Blastomycosis by Blastomyces dermatitidis

b. Explain FIVE (5) morphological characteristics in the study of fungus. (5 Marks)

based on anamorphic phase
variety of reproductive asexual propagules

conidia/sporangiospores

variety of hyphael types

hyaline/pigmented
septate/aseptate

texture of thallus

cottony, velvety, granular, glabrous

topography of thallus

rugose, umbonate, verrucose

color of thallus

top and reverse

2. a. Compare and contrast between yeast and mould. (4 Marks)

b. Describe the functions of fungi. (6 Marks)

3. During a rural school health program, a 7 year-old boy was noted to be anaemic. On stool examination the eggs of the organism were noted to have a characteristic bipolar plug.

a. Name the probable parasite involved. (2 Marks)

Trichuris trichuria

b. What the method of transmission that parasite to human? (1 Mark)

ingest eggs

c. Where is the location of adult parasite stay in the human body? (1 Mark)

colon

d. Draw the egg and adult of the parasite. (4 Marks)

e. What is the diagnosis used to detect the parasite? (2 Marks)

stool O&P

eosinophilia

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. Describe the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolates. (10 Marks)

Preliminary

Yeast colony

smooth
pasty to mucoid

Mold colony

cottony
velvety
granular
powdery

Initial observation

appearance of the growth

surface and reverse surface of colony were observed
delicate or hairlike hyphae

rate of growth

saprophytes: 3~5 d
dimorphic: >10 d
dermatophytes: >14 d

colony pigmentation
growth on media containing antifungal agents

most strains of the dimorphic fungi can grow
most strains of rapidly growing saprobes are inhibited

dimorphic growth

mold (environmental and infective form) ambient or room temp 22~25℃
yeast (invasive form) near body temp 30~35℃

2. Explain the major types of medically important nematode. Give an appropriate explanation regarding the names of nematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (10 Marks)

3. Discuss about schistosomiasis. Give an appropriate explanation regarding name of parasite, method of transmission to human, location of adult parasite in the human body, draw the eggs of parasite and diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

September 2018

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS.

1. Which of the following can be found in sputum sample?

(A) Candida sp.

(B) Aspergillus sp.*

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis.

2. Amoebic dysentery is caused by

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Trypanosoma cruzii

(D) Entamoeba histolytica*

3. Which of the following use pseudopodia for locomotion?

(A) ciliates

(B) amoeba*

(D) microsporidia

4. Which of the following act as a main reservoir of Balantidium coli infection in human beings?

(A) pig*

(B) cow

(D) monkey

5. Which of the following tapeworm can be found in pigs?

(A) Taenia solium*

(B) Taenia saginata

(D) Diphyllobotrium latum

6. Which of the following nematode is an ovo-viviparous? lay eggs with larvae, hatch immediately

(A) Trichinella spiralis--vivi

(B) Enterobius vermicularis--ovi

(D) Strongyloides stercoralis*

7. Presence of the ingested red blood cells is the characteristic of

(A) Entamoeba coli

(B) Iodamoeba butcheli

(D) Entamoeba histolytica*

8. Larval form of Echinococcus granulosus is seen in

(A) fox

(B) dog

(D) wolf

9. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by

(A) Balamuthia spp.

(B) Naegleria fowleri*

(D) Iodamoaeba butcshelli

10. Congenitally transmitted parasitic infection is caused by

(A) Amoebiasis

(B) Trichuris trichiura

(D) Pneumocystis carinii

11. Protozoan transmitted sexually is

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Balantidium coli

(D) Entamoeba histolytica

12. Oocyst of Toxoplasma gondii is found in feces of

(A) cat*

(B) dog, sheep, mouse tissue cyst

(D) man

13. Trichomonas vaginalis may reside in

(A) lung

(B) prostate*

(D) intestine

14. Parasite transmitted from dogs is hookworm

(A) Toxoplasma gondii

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

15. Sleeping sickness is caused by

(A) Toxoplasma gondii

(B) Trypanosoma brucei*

(D) Leishmania donovani

16. The characteristic of fungi to be in dual forms (yeast and mold) is called

(A) bimorphic

(B) dimorphic*

(D) pleomorphic

17. Dermatophytosis is commonly known as

(A) skin rash

(B) ringworm*

(D) nails infection

18. Sporothrix is a genus that cause a condition in human called

(A) mycetoma

(B) sporothicosis*

(D) tinea versicolor

19. Tinea pedis is commonly known as

(A) skin rash

(B) ringworm

(D) Athlete’s foot*

20. Which of the following is the true mycoses?

(A) candidiasis

(B) aspergillosis

(D) histoplasmosis*--coccidioidomycosis

21. Pityriasis is caused by the infection of

(A) Tinea pedis

(B) Tinea cruris

(D) Tinea versicolor*

22. Which of the following fungi has a capsule?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Aspergillus fumigatus

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans*

23. Sporothrichin skin test is used to diagnose the infection of

(A) Sporothrix schenckii*

(B) Aspergillus fumigatus

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. Mycetoma is a condition caused by the infection of

(A) Actinomyces sp.*

(B) Sporothrix schenckii

(D) Histoplasma capsulatum

25. Spherules can be found in the infection of

(A) Actinomyces sp.

(B) Sporothrix schenckii

(D) Histoplasma capsulatum

26. Cave disease is caused by the infection of

(A) Actinomyces sp.

(B) Sporothrix schenckii

(D) Histoplasma capsulatum*

27. Which of the following present with a pseudohyphae?

(A) Candida albican*

(B) Aspergillus fumigatus

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

28. Granulomatous mycotic infection can be seen in

(A) candidiasis

(B) aspergillosis

(D) blastomycosis*

29. Which of the following can be found in bird droppings?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Aspergillus fumigatus

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans*

30. Which of the following present with septate hyphae?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Aspergillus fumigatus*

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. With an example, describe the characteristics of adult Taenia species. (10 Marks)

Taenia saginata

scolex no hooks
may have tiny rostellum
4 suckers
1000~2000 proglottids
14~32 uterine branches
2 ovary

Taenia solium

scolex has 2 rows of hooks on a prominent rostellum
4 suckers
7~1000 proglottids
7~11 uterine branches
3 ovary

2. Provide a diagram to describe the life cycle of Fasciolopsis buski. (10 Marks)

3. Explain the types of fungal infection with example. (10 Marks)

Superficial

Tinea versicolor

Cutaneous

Dermatophytes

Subcutaneous

Sporothrix schenkii (sporotrichosis)
Madurella (mycetoma)

Systemic

Coccidioidomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Blastomycosis

Opportunistic

Cryptococcosis
Aspergillosis
Candidiasis

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question1

Describe the characteristics of fungi and its available forms. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Summarize the characteristics of Ascaris lumbricoides including the eggs and adult forms. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Explain the life cycle of parasites under subclass Digenea from eggs to adult form. (20 Marks)

Egg

developing embryo
fertilized, ready to hatch
have an operculum except schistosoma

Miracidium

covered in cilia, slipper shaped
leaves eggs, swim around looking for first intermediate host, a snail
burrows into 1st host, loses cilia
turns into sporocyst or redia

Sporocyst

miracidium penetrates snail mantle
turns into sporocyst
"sac" of embryos
it releases embryos into snail
embryos can become sporocyst, redia or cercaria

Redia

has pharynx, small digestive system
more mobile than sporocyst
embryos turn into redia or cercaria

Cercaria

leave snail, find next host
looks like a miniature adult with a tail
tail for swimming
loses tail as penetrate next host
schistosoma cercaria have forked tails

Metacercaria

"resting"
miniature adult curled up in a tissue cyst (bubble on body wall)
wait for intermediate host to be eaten by DH

Adult

flat, leaf shaped
male and female organs in same individual
adult schistosoma are round

sexes separated
male larger than female

February 2018

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. The following are parasite transmitted by the faecal-oral route EXCEPT

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Fasciola hepatica

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis*

2. Which of the following is TRUE regarding zoonosis?

(A) A parasitic disease in human who is normally the host but also can infects animal.

(B) A parasitic disease in animal which is normally the host but also can infects man.*

(D) A fungi disease in animal which is normally the host but also can infects plant.

3. Which of the following specimens should be examined in order to detect the presence of Ascaris lumbricoides?

I. urine

II. blood

III. faeces

IV. sputum

(A) I

(B) I and II

(D) I, II and III

4. What is the transmission vector for Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) Sand fly

(B) Tsetse fly*

(D) Anopheles mosquito

5. A man normally get infected with Trypanosoma cruzi through

(A) ingestion of eggs in the food

(B) ingestion of metacercaria in the water

(D) Anopheles sp. mosquito injects promastigotes into the skin

6. Which of the following is the most common liver fluke in man?

(A) Fasciola hepatica*

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

7. Which of the following laboratory diagnosis may be used to confirm Necator americanus infections?

(A) Egg detected in stool

(B) Larvae detection in urine

(D) No eosinophilia in the blood

8. What specimen would you choose to send to the laboratory to identify Paragonimus westermani infection?

(A) urine

(B) blood

(D) cerebrospinal fluid

9. In which of the following hosts does sexual reproduction of parasites occur?

(A) saprobes host

(B) definitive host*

(D) intermediate host

10. A man get infected with Fasciolopsis buski by ingesting

(A) redia in the snail

(B) sporocyst in the water

(D) metacercaria on vegetation*

11. What is the location of adult Wuchereria bancrofti in human body?

(A) veins

(B) arteries

(D) capillaries in the lungs

12. What type of tapeworm infection can man get by eating under-cooked infected beef?

(A) Taenia solium

(B) Taenia saginata*

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

13. What is the disease caused by Leishmania donovani?

(A) Malaria

(B) Leishmaniasis*

(D) African sleeping sickness

14. Which of the following parasite can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Taenia saginata

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about parasite?

(A) Host is the organism in, or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm.

(B) Medical parasitology the study and medical implications of parasites that infect humans.

(D) Vector is a living carrier that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non-infected host.

16. Which of the following is TRUE about mycoses?

(A) It is a study of fungi.

(B) It is a study of parasites.

(D) It is a disease caused by a fungus.*

17. The classification of mould is based on

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

18. Which of the following is the properties of fungi?

(A) chitin*

(B) cellulose

(D) phospholipids

19. Which of the following is a feature of yeast?

(A) moist*

(B) velvety

(D) granular

20. How many days it takes for dermatophytes fungi growth?

(A) 1-2 days

(B) 3-5 days

(D) 14 days or more*

21. Which of the following is a selective culture media?

(A) Oxgall agar.*

(B) Czapek’s agar.

(D) Sabouraud dextrose agar.

22. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test*

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

23. What is the common name of disease cause by Tinea versicolor?

(A) pityriasis*

(B) cave disease

(D) black fever disease

24. What is the clinical sample for Blastomycosis diagnosis?

(A) urine

(B) feces

(D) sputum*

25. Which of the following serodiagnosis is used to detect Coccidioides immitis?

(A) Latex agglutination

(B) Immunodiffusion test

(D) immunofluorescent-antibody test

26. What is the clinical sample that can be used to diagnose Tinea unguium?

(A) urine

(B) feces

(D) nail clippings*

27. The following statement can cause poor treatment for mycoses EXCEPT

(A) high doses of antifungals.*

(B) relatively toxic therapy to patient.

(D) limited diagnostic options to detect mycoses.

28. What is common name of disease caused by Histoplasma capsulatum?

(A) cave disease*

(B) black fever disease

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease

29. Lesions site cause by Tinea capitis can be found with

(A) nail

(B) scalp*

(D) beard

30. Which of the following fungi causes “jock itch” affects groin and scrotal regions?

(A) Tinea cruris*

(B) Tinea corporis

(D) Tinea versicolor

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. As a medical laboratory technology you are going into a village where there is an outbreak of Malaria.

i. List the FOUR (4) parasites cause malaria. (4 Marks)

plasmodium falciparum, vivax, malariae, ovale

ii. Name the vector for malaria parasites. (1 Mark)

Anopheles mosquito

iii. What is the clinical specimen should be examined in order to detect the presence of Malaria parasite? (1 Mark)

blood

b. Briefly describe Amebiasis. (4 Marks)

Entamoeba histolytica

ingest contaminated food, water, hand

bloody diarrhea

intestinal

sarcodina

feces

2. Explain the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolates. (10 Marks)

Preliminary

colony characteristics

yeast smooth, pasty to mucoid
molds cottony, velvety, granular, powdery

Initial

appearance of the growth

surface and reverse surface of colony were observed
delicate or hairlike hyphae

rate of growth

saprophytes: 3~5 d
dimorphic fungi: >10 d
dermatophytes: >14 d

colony pigmentation
growth on media containing antifungal agents

most strains of dimorphic fungi can grow
most strains of rapidly growing saprobes are inhibited

dimorphic growth

mold (environmental and infective form): ambient or room temp 22~25℃
yeast (invasive form): near body temp 30~35℃

3. a. Explain the characteristic of fungi. (5 Marks)

eukaryotic
facultatively anaerobic, strictly aerobic
chemotropic
heterotrophs
spores
chitin
unicell
no photosynthetic
no cellulose

b. Briefly describe the important of fungi. (5 Marks)

decomposer
food
medicine
disease causing
disease fighting
Fungus-Plant Root Association
Lichen

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Discuss on schistosomiasis regarding type of parasites, its characteristics, method of transmission, infective stage, its infection location and also laboratory diagnosis of each parasites. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Explain major types of medically important nematode. Give an appropriate explanation regarding names of nematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss on Candida albicans regarding characteristics, method of transmission, disease cause and laboratory diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

September 2017

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTION

1. Which of the following hosts does sexual reproduction of parasites occur?

(A) Paratenic host

(B) Definitive host*

(D) Intermediate host

2. The single cell parasites known as?

(A) cestode

(B) protozoa*

(D) trematode

3. The host that supports the larval stage of a parasite is known as the

(A) second host

(B) reservoir host

(D) intermediate host*--development

4. Man is the intermediate host for

(A) Plasmodium vivax*

(B) Entamoeba histolytica

(D) Enterobious vermiculasis

5. Fungi that invade skin, hair, nails are classified as?

(A) systemic

(B) cutaneous*

(D) subcutaneous

6. Which parasite enters, the body by piercing the skin?

(A) Plasmodium vivax

(B) Trichuris trichiura--eggs

(D) Ascaris lumbricoides--eggs

7. A true fungal pathogen must exhibit what characteristics?

(A) produce spores

(B) produce mycelia

(D) transmitted by the respiratory route

8. In humans, malarial parasites multiply by

(A) budding

(B) schizogony

(D) gametogony*

9. What are the most prevalent of all fungal infections?

(A) Candidiasis*

(B) Histoplasmosis

(D) Dermatophytoses

10. The infective form of Entamoeba histolytica is

(A) trophozoite

(B) gametogony

(D) binucleate cyst

11. Normal habitat of Giardia is

(A) ileum

(B) caecum

(D) duodenum and jejunum*

12. Vaginal discharge in infection by Trichomonas vaginalis vaginitis is

(A) yellow*

(B) colorless

(D) blood stained

13. Toxoplasma gondii lives inside the

(A) red blood cell

(B) lumen of large intestine

(D) reticuloendothelial cell and nucleated cell*

14. Intermediate hosts of toxoplasmosis are

(A) fish

(B) bird*

(D) monkey

15. The infective form of Balantidium coli is

(A) cyst*

(B) sporozoite

(D) trophozoite

16. Digestive tract is completely absent in

(A) cestodes

(B) protozoa*

(D) trematodes

17. Pigs are reservoir for

(A) Taenia solium*

(B) Trichinella spiralis

(D) Ancyclostoma duodenale

18. What is the Latin name that corresponds to athlete’s foot?

(A) Tinea pedis*

(B) Tinea cruris

(D) Tinea corporis

19. Figure 1 arrows demonstrate which of the following parasite?

(A) Giardia lamblia*

(B) Balantidium coli

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis

20. Figure 2 screening test usually used for

(A) malaria screening*--plasmodium falciparum

(B) amoeba screening

(D) hookworm screening

21. What is the characteristic of trematode shown in Figure 3?

(A) cause lung abscesses

(B) lateral vestigial spine

(D) prominent terminal spine at posterior end

22. Figure 4 shown eggs of

(A) Necator americanus

(B) Ancylostoma duodenale

(D) Strongyloides stercoralis

23. Name the type of stains used in Figure 5?

(A) Eosin

(B) Trichrome*

(D) Normal saline

24. Name the type of cestode shown in Figure 6?

(A) Taenia solium

(B) Taenia saginata

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

25. Largest trematode infecting humans is

(A) Fasciola hepatica

(B) Fasciolopsos buski*

(D) Schistosoma haematobium

26. The second intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica is

(A) crab

(B) snail--first IH, humans or herbivores DH

(D) fresh water fish

27. Schistosoma japonicum resides in

(A) gall bladder

(B) small intestine*

(D) superior mesenteric vein

28. All of the following statements about Trichuris trichuria are correct, EXCEPT

(A) it resides in large intestine of man

(B) eggs of Trichuris float in saturated salt solution

(D) embryonated eggs containing rhabditiform larvae are infective to man

29. All of the following are characteristics of Ancylostoma, EXCEPT

(A) its copulatory bursa has 13 rays

(B) caudal spine is present in female

(D) vulval opening is situated in the middle of the body

30. Which of the following larval form is NOT found in stool?

(A) Trichuris trichiura*

(B) Necator americanus

(D) Strongyloides stercoralis

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Draw and label the eggs of (10 Marks)

i. Fasciola buski

ii. Fasciola hepatica

iii. Schistosoma mansoni

iv. Schistosoma japonicum

v. Schistosoma haematobium

2. a. List FIVE (5) risk factor for nosocomial fungal infections. (5 Marks)

GI surgery

burns

central venous catheter

colonization

prolonged hospital stay

b. Give FIVE (5) species of opportunistic mycoses. (5 Marks)

cryptococcus

aspergillus

candida

pneumocystis jirovecii

zygomycosis (mucor)

3. Draw and label diagrams of the microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi showing their differential characteristics. (10 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

With the aid of labeled diagrams, discuss the life cycle and laboratory microscopic examination of Fasciolopsis buski. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Describe the preparation of a thin blood smear for the identification of malaria parasites. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss the life cycle, mode of infection, infective stage, and laboratory diagnosis of Taenia saginata. (20 Marks)

January 2017

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following parasite produces ground itch to man?

(A) Trichuris trichiura

(B) Necator americanus*

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

2. Blood fluke parasite is associated with

(A) worms of the genus Taenia

(B) worms of the genus Fasciolopsis

(D) worms of the genus Heterophyes

3. Graham Scotch tape technique is used for the diagnosis of the infection cause by

(A) Trichuris trichiura

(B) Necator americanus

(D) Enterobius vermicularis*

4. Strongyloides stercoralis infect man through

(A) ingestion of embryonated eggs

(B) ingestion of unembryonated egg

(D) penetration of the skin by rhabiditiform larvae

5. The infective stage of which of the following parasite is encysted in aquatic vegetations?

(A) Fasciolopsis buski*

(B) Clonorchis sinensis

(D) Paragonimus westermani

6. Which of the following parasite that transmitted by autoinfection?

(A) Burgia malayi

(B) Wuchereria bancrofti

(D) Srongyloides stercoralis*--enterobius

7. The Trematodes that swims in the water in a form of

(A) Cercariae*

(B) Sporocyst

(D) Metacercariae

8. Taenia saginata is associated with

(A) cat

(B) Pig

(D) cattle*--ingest eggs, human eats cysticercus

9. Infective stage of Ascaris lumbricoides is

(A) unfertilized eggs

(B) decorticated fertilized

(D) fertilized egg with second stage larva*

14. Which of the following life cycle of Plasmodium develops in female mosquito?

(A) sporogony

(B) schizogons

(D) gametogony

inject sporozoite, ingest gametocyte

11. The chief morphological differences between Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus in adult stage

(A) shape of worm

(B) shape and arrangement of body nuclei

(D) presence of ventral teeth or cutting plates

12. The location of hookworms is in the

(A) small intestine*

(B) large intestine

(D) lymphatic system

13. Taenia saginata and Taenia solium are similar in many way´s, but Taenia solium is more dangerous because

(A) it has an arranged scolex

(B) it has fewer uterine branches than T.saginata

(D) the cyst or larvae form ingested from pork is more potent than the cyst form beef

15. Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious infection due to

(A) irregular paroxysms

(B) absence of true relapse

(D) adherence and blocking of capillaries of internal organs

16. What is the intermediate host for the schistosomes?

(A) Soil

(B) snails*

(D) blood-sucking insect

17. In malaria, where do the asexual sporozoites undergo schizogony to form merozoites?

(A) in liver cells

(B) in lymph nodes

(D) in red blood cells

18. Helminthes of class Nematoda are characterized by the followings EXCEPT

(A) have mouth and anus.

(B) parasitic as well as free living

(D) females usually shorter and thinner than male

19. Eating poorly cooked pork can lead to an infection with

(A) Taenia solium

(B) Taenia saginata

(D) Hymenolepis diminuta

20. Which of the following is the pinworm mode of infection?

I. retroinfection

II. through mouth

III. inhalation of air borne ova

IV. infected larvae penetrate the skin

(A) I only

(B) I and II

(D) I, II, III and IV

21. Which of the following fungi is most likely to be found within Reticuloendothelial cells?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Sporothrix schenckii

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

22. Which of the Aspergillosis’s characteristics presence can be recognized in the human tissue?

(A) budding cells

(B) psuedohyphae

(D) metachromatic granules

23. Which of the following characteristic is CORRECT about yeasts?

(A) Yeast grow as dry rough colonies if they have capsules

(B) Cryptococcus neoformans is not basidiomycetous yeast

(D) Some yeast reproduce sexually (ascomycetes and basidiomycetes) or only asexually (deuteromycetes)*

24. Which of the following is associated with general characteristics of molds?

I. rapidly growth

II. reproduction by sexually on the aerial hyphae

III. consist of aerial hyphae and vegetative hyphae

IV. they grow in the form of cytoplasmic filaments or hyphae that make up mycelium

(A) I only

(B) I, II and III

(D) I, II, III and IV*

25. Which of the following are characteristics of fungi?

I. they are photosynthetic

II. fungal cell walls do not have cellulose

III. fungal cell walls do contain a polysaccharide called chitin

IV. many fungi are unicellular (e.g., yeasts), others grow as filaments called hyphae, which intertwine to form a mass called a mycelium

(A) I and II

(B) I, II and III

(D) I, II, III and IV

26. Each of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans are correct EXCEPT

(A) budding yeasts are found in the lesions

(B) the initial site of infection is usually the lung

(D) pathogenesis is related primarily to the production of exotoxin A

27. Which of the following fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of patients?

(A) mycetoma, candidiasis and mucormycosis

(B) sporotrichosis, mycetoma and aspergillosis

(D) tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor

28. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of histoplasmosis?

(A) yeasts in tissue

(B) mycelial phase in the soil

(D) specific geographic distribution

29. Which of the following associated with the infection of dermatophyte?

(A) fecal-oral transmission

(B) intravenous drug abuse

(D) inhalation of the organism from contaminated bird feces

30. Each of the following statements concerning Candida albicans is CORRECT?

(A) C. albicans multiply sexually

(B) C. albicans can be transmitted to contaminated food

(D) C. albicans is a budding yeast that forms psuedohyphae when it invades tissue*

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Describe the morphology of Entamoeba histolytica. (4 Marks)

b. Describe the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica. (6 Marks)

2. a. Describe the morphology of Giardia Lamblia. (3 Marks)

b. Describe briefly the transmission and pathogenesis of Giardia lamblia. (5 Marks)

c. Describe briefly the prevention of giardiasis. (2 Marks)

3. a. Describe the morphology of Trichuris tricuria. (4 Marks)

b. Describe the life cycle of Trichuris tricuria. (3 Marks)

c. Describe the transmission and pathogenesis of Trichuris tricuria. (3 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Fasiolopsis buski is known to be a large intestinal fluke in animal and human which first discovered by busk in 1843.Found in the duodenum of an east indian who died in London. Discuss the morphology, life cycle, pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis and prevention of the Fasiolopsis buski. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Despite considerable research, malaria stills the most devastating parasitic disease in the world. Discuss in details the types, habitat, transmission, life cycle, clinical diagnosis and prevention based on your study. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Fungus is widely distributed in nature such as air, water, soil and decaying organic debris. Discuss in details the mycology laboratory examination techniques based on your studies. (20 Marks)

August 2016

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following specimen is used in laboratory diagnosis to detect Balantidium coli infections?

(A) feces*

(B) blood

(D) vaginal discharge

2. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding to infection of toxoplasmosis?

(A) Cat is the definitive host.

(B) It may present as a congenital disease.

(D) Oocysts Toxoplasma gondii can survive in the environment for several months and resistant to disinfectants.

3. In malaria the most common vector of Plasmodium malariae is the ____________ mosquito.

(A) Aedes

(B) Culex

(D) Anopheles*

4. Which of the following parasites is transmitted to the definitive host by insect bites?

(A) Ghiardia lamblia

(B) Leishmania donovani*

(D) Paragonimus westermani

5. The single cell parasites known as

(A) cestoda

(B) protozoa*

(D) trematode

6. How does man get infected with Fasciolopsis buski?

(A) ingesting redia in the snail

(B) ingesting cercaria in the water

(D) ingesting metacercaria on vegetation*

7. How does man normally get infected with Enterobius vermicularis?

(A) mosquito bites

(B) skin penetration

(D) ingestion of metacercaria

8. Which of the following parasites is a lung fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani*

9. What is the definition of vector?

(A) The organism that lives within a dead organism.

(B) The organism that lives within another living organism.

(D) The organism that acquires some of its basic nutritional requirements through its intimate contact with another living organism.

10. The definitive host for Taenia solium is

(A) pig*

(B) fish

(D) rodent

11. Which of he following parasite is transmitted by the faecal-oral route?

(A) Brugia malayi

(B) Fasciolopsis buski*

(D) Trypanosoma brucei

12. What is the definition for intermediate host?

(A) An organism in, or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm.

(B) An organism in which the parasite lives during a period of its development only.*

(D) An organism that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected host to a non-infected host.

13. Which of the following specimen should be examined in order to detect the presence of Necator americanus?

(A) urine

(B) blood

(D) cerebrospinal fluid

14. The Echinococcus granulosus adults are located in the ___________ of man.

(A) brain

(B) heart

(D) intestine*

15. Which of the following organisms, can be found in stool examination?

(A) Taenia saginata*

(B) Trypanosoma brucei

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis

16. The classification of dimorphic fungi is based on

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

17. Which of the following is characteristic of yeast?

(A) moist*

(B) cottony

(D) granular

18. What is the definition of heterotrophs?

(A) organism that can cause harm to the host

(B) organism that feeds on the living tissue of a host*

(D) organism that can absorb food through hyphae that grow into the food source

19. Which of the following agar is a selective culture media?

(A) Oxgall agar*

(B) Czapek’s agar

(D) BHI with 5-10% sheep blood

20. Which of the morphological characterization of fungus is TRUE?

(A) size of thallus.

(B) shape of thallus.

(D) colour of thallus.*

21. Which one of the following statements about collecting and transporting mycology specimen is NOT TRUE?

(A) The culture container for the fungus must be properly labeled.

(B) The sample to detect the fungus must be in sufficient quantity.

(D) The sample to detect the fungus must be of material from the actual infection site.

22. The usual site of Tinea unguium lesion is the

(A) nails*

(B) scalp

(D) genital urinary

23. What is the fungus that causes Coccidioidomycosis?

(A) Coccidioides immitis*

(B) Histoplasma capsulatum

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is NOT used to detect Blastomyces dermatitidis ?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

25. What type of sample can be used to diagnose aspergillosis?

(A) hair

(B) urine

(D) sputum*

26. Which one of these steps can improve treatment for mycoses?

(A) early diagnosis

(B) relative toxic therapy

(D) limiting diagnostic options

27. All of the following are diagnostic tests for Coccidioides immitis EXCEPT

(A) culture

(B) complement fixation

(D) tube precipitin (IgM) test

28. Which of the following statements regarding Candida albicans is TRUE?

(A) Candida albicans is normal flora in the human lungs.

(B) Candida albicans is one of the important causes of cave disease.

(D) Candida albicans is transmitted to the definitive host by insect bites.

29. The common name of the disease caused by Pseudallescheria spp. infection is

(A) pityriasis

(B) mycetoma

(D) rose-gardener’s disease

30. Which of the following ringworm cause Athlete’s foot disease?

(A) Tinea pedis

(B) Tinea capitis

(D) Tinea versicolor

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. During a rural school health program, a 7 year-old boy was noted to be anaemic. On stool examination the eggs of the organism were noted to have a characteristic bipolar plug.

a. Name the probable parasite involved. (2 Marks)

Trichuris trichuria

b. Determine the method of transmission that parasite to human. (1 Mark)

ingest eggs

c. Recall the location of adult parasite in the human body. (1 Mark)

d. Draw the egg and adult of that parasite. (4 Marks)

e. Determine the diagnosis to detect that parasite. (2 Marks)

Stool O&P

Eosinophilia

2. A 50 year-old man presented with a long history of scrotal and leg swelling resembling an elephant.

a. What is the possible disease the man is suffering from? (2 Marks)

Elephantiasis

b. Give vector of transmission. (1 Mark)

mosquito

c. State diagnosis to detect that parasite. (1 Mark)

microfilariae in blood at night

d. Determine the organism involved. (3 Marks)

wucheria bancrofti

brugia malayi

malayi microfilarae

e. Describe the control and preventive measures to be taken. (3 Marks)

3. a. Determine the samples from the human body that can be used to detect Histoplasma capsulatum. (2 Marks)

sputum

tissue

b. List the laboratory diagnosis to detect Histoplasma capsulatum. (4 Marks)

c. List the laboratory diagnosis to detect Candida albicans. (4 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Draw the eggs of parasites and discuss about schistosomiasis in detail. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Write short notes on FOUR (4) of the following:

a) Amebiasis

b) Leishmaniasis

c) Ghiardosis

d) Trichomoniasis

(20 Marks)

Question 3

Describe the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolates. (20 Marks)

January 2016

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. What is the definition of ectoparasite?

(A) The organism that lives on the external surface of another living organism.*

(B) The organism in which the parasite lives during a period of its development only.

(D) The organism that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non infected host.

2. What the disease cause by Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) Malaria

(B) Trichomoniasis

(D) African sleeping sickness*

3. What is the vector for Leishmania donovani?

(A) Sand fly*

(B) Tsetse fly

(D) Anopheles mosquito

4. Which of the following is a vector for Plasmodium vivax?

(A) Tsetse fly

(B) Aedes mosquito

(D) Anopheles mosquito*

5. Which of the following parasites can be diagnosed using a stool sample?

(A) Ghiardia lamblia*

(B) Trypanosoma brucei

(D) Plasmodium malariae

6. Which of the following is in life cycle of trematode?

(A) sporocyst*

(B) sporozoites

(D) trypomastigotes

7. Which of the following is an intestinal fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica

(B) Fasciolopsis buski*

(D) Schistosoma haematobium

8. Which part of organ in the human body adult Fasciola hepatica could be found?

(A) lung

(B) liver*

(D) brain

9. What is the scientific name for Hookworm?

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Necator americanus*

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

10. Which of the following parasites causes Loeffler’s syndrome?

(A) Balantidium coli

(B) Trichuris trichuria

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

11. How would you diagnose Brugia malayi in human body?

(A) egg in the stool

(B) cercaria in the urine

(D) metacercaria in the sputum

12. What is the parasite that cause elephantiasis?

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Wucheria pacifica*

(D) Entamoeba histolytica

13. Which of the following is TRUE about Taenia saginata?

(A) beef tapeworm*

(B) pork tapeworm

(D) it can be diagnosed through ELISA test

14. Which of the following is a tapeworm?

(A) Balantidium coli

(B) Trichinella sprialis

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following can be used for classification of yeast?

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphological*

16. Which is a function of fungi?

(A) intermediate host

(B) chemical detector

(D) important decomposers*

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of fungus?

(A) use seed to reproduce

(B) cell walls do not have a chitin

(D) cell walls do not have cellulose*

18. Which is a non-selective media use for culturing fungi?

(A) Oxgall agar

(B) Mycosel agar

(D) Sabouraud dextrose agar*

19. Which of the following can be used for morphological characterization of fungus?

(A) width of thallus

(B) height of thallus

(D) topography of thallus*

20. Which of the following is NOT a procedure in specimen collection and transport of fungi?

(A) Specimen container must be properly labeled.

(B) Specimen must be material from the actual infection site.

(D) Specimen must be contaminated with other microbes from the environment.*

21. Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic test for Candida albicans?

(A) ELISA test

(B) immunodiffusion test*

(D) identification germ tube test

22. What is the common name of a disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii?

(A) Pityriasis

(B) Cave disease

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease*

23. How many days are required to take saprophytes fungi growth?

(A) 1-2 days

(B) 3-5 days*

(D) 14 days or more

24. Which of the following serodiagnosis is used to detect Coccidioides immitis?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test

(D) indirect fluorescent antibody test

25. What sample can be used to diagnose blastomycosis?

(A) hair

(B) urine

(D) sputum*

26. Which of the following is a better treatment for mycoses?

(A) low doses of antibiotic

(B) high doses of antifungals*

(D) high doses of natrium chloride fluid

27. Which of the following fungi can cause Cave disease?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Coccidioides immitis

(D) Histoplasma capsulatum*

28. Which lesions sites can be caused by Tinea corporis?

(A) nail

(B) body*

(D) groin

29. Which of the following causes Athlete’s foot disease?

(A) Tinea pedis*

(B) Tinea cruris

(D) Tinea versicolor

30. Aspergillus fumigatus is primarily transmitted to human through the

(A) sexual intercourse

(B) inhalation of spores*

(D) ingestion of cysts in contaminated water

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define parasite. (2 Marks)

b. Briefly explain regarding name of medically important trematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (8 Marks)

2. a. Define fungi. (2 Marks)

b. Briefly describe regarding name of medically important systemic mycoses, name of the causative fungus and method of transmission to human. (8 Marks)

3. a. Compare and contrast between yeast and mould. (4 Marks)

b. Describe the initial observation in the study of fungus isolates. (6 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Explain major types of medically important protozoa. Give an appropriate explanation regarding name of protozoa, disease and it vector or method of transmission to human to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Explain major types of medically important nematode. Give an appropriate explanation regarding names of nematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss the characteristics and importance of fungi. (20 Marks)

August 2015

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. The following are parasite transmitted by the faecal-oral route EXCEPT

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Fasciola hepatica

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis*

2. Which of the following is TRUE regarding zoonosis?

(A) A fungi disease in human who is normally the host but also can infects animal.

(B) A fungi disease in animal which is normally the host but also can infects man.*

(D) A parasitic disease in animal which is normally the host but also can infects man.

3. Which of the following specimens should be examined in order to detect the presence of Ascaris lumbricoides?

I. urine

II. blood

III. faeces

IV. sputum

(A) I

(B) I and II

(D) I, II and III

4. What is the transmission vector for Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) Sand fly

(B) Tsetse fly*

(D) Anopheles mosquito

5. A man normally get infected with Trypanosoma cruzi through

(A) ingestion of eggs in the food

(B) ingestion of metacercaria in the water

(D) Anopheles sp. mosquito injects promastigotes into the skin

6. Which of the following is the most common liver fluke in man?

(A) Fasciola hepatica*

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

7. Which of the following laboratory diagnosis may be used to confirm Necator americanus infections?

(A) Egg detected in stool

(B) Larvae detection in urine

(D) No eosinophilia in the blood

8. What specimen would you choose to send to the laboratory to identify Paragonimus westermani infection?

(A) urine.

(B) blood.

(D) cerebrospinal fluid.

9. In which of the following hosts does sexual reproduction of parasites occur?

(A) saprobes host

(B) definitive host*

(D) intermediate host

10. A man get infected with Fasciolopsis buski by ingesting

(A) redia in the snail

(B) sporocyst in the water

(D) metacercaria on vegetation*

11. What is the location of adult Wuchereria bancrofti in human body?

(A) veins

(B) arteries

(D) capillaries in the lungs

12. What type of tapeworm infection can man get by eating under-cooked infected beef?

(A) Taenia solium

(B) Taenia saginata*

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

13. What is the disease caused by Leishmania donovani?

(A) Malaria

(B) Leishmaniasis*

(D) African sleeping sickness

14. Which of the following parasite can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Taenia saginata

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about parasite?

(A) Endoparasite is a parasite that lives on the external surface of another living organism.*

(B) Vector is a living carrier that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non-infected host.

(D) Medical parasitology the study and medical implications of parasites that infect humans.

16. Which of the following is TRUE about mycoses?

(A) It is a study of fungi.

(B) It is a study of parasites.

(D) It is a disease caused by a fungus.*

17. The classification of mould is based on

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

18. Which of the following is the properties of fungi?

(A) chitin*

(B) cellulose

(D) phospholipids

19. Which of the following is a feature of yeast?

(A) moist*

(B) velvety

(D) granular

20. How many days it takes for dermatophytes fungi growth?

(A) 1-2 days

(B) 3-5 days

(D) 14 days or more*

21. Which of the following is a selective culture media?

(A) Oxgall agar.*

(B) Czapek’s agar.

(D) Sabouraud dextrose agar.

22. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test*

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

23. What is the common name of disease cause by Tinea versicolor?

(A) pityriasis*

(B) cave disease

(D) black fever disease

24. What is the clinical sample for Blastomycosis diagnosis?

(A) urine

(B) feces

(D) sputum*

25. Which of the following serodiagnosis is used to detect Coccidioides immitis?

(A) Latex agglutination

(B) Immunodiffusion test

(D) immunofluorescent-antibody test

26. What is the clinical sample that can be used to diagnose Tinea unguium?

(A) urine

(B) feces

(D) nail clippings*

27. The following statement can cause poor treatment for mycoses EXCEPT:

(A) High doses of antifungals.*

(B) Relatively toxic therapy to patient.

(D) Limited diagnostic options to detect mycoses.

28. What is common name of disease caused by Histoplasma capsulatum?

(A) cave disease*

(B) black fever disease

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease

29. Lesions site cause by Tinea capitis can be found with

(A) nail

(B) scalp*

(D) beard

30. Which of the following fungi causes “jock itch” affects groin and scrotal regions?

(A) Tinea cruris*

(B) Tinea corporis

(D) Tinea versicolor

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. As a medical laboratory technology you are going into a village where there is an outbreak of Malaria.

i. List the FOUR (4) parasites cause malaria. (4 Marks)

ii. Name the vector for malaria parasites. (1 Mark)

iii. What is the clinical specimen should be examined in order to detect the presence of Malaria parasite? (1 Mark)

b. Briefly describe Amebiasis. (4 Marks)

2. Briefly explain FOUR (4) major types of medically important nematode regarding their names, method of transmission and the laboratory diagnosis. (10 Marks)

3. a. Explain the characteristic of fungi. (5 Marks)

b. Briefly describe the important of fungi. (5 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Question 2

Explain the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolates. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss on Candida albicans regarding characteristics, method of transmission, disease cause and laboratory diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

January 2015

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is NOT the most common route of transmission of parasitic infection?

(A) inhalation*

(B) bite by a vector

(D) oral intake of contaminated food and water

2. A the single cell parasites known as

(A) cestoda

(B) protozoa*

(D) trematoda

3. What is the definition of host?

(A) The organism that lives within a dead organism.

(B) The organism that in or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm.*

through its intimate contact with another living organism

(D) The organism that a living carrier that transports a pathogenic organism from

an infected to a non-infected host.

4. When Balantidium coli infection is suspected, what specimen would you choose to send to the laboratory?

(A) blood

(B) sputum

(D) fresh urine

5. Which of the following parasites is a protozoa?

(A) Filiariasis

(B) Tricuriasis

(D) Schistosomiasis

6. Which of the following mosquito can spread Malaria disease?

(A) Culex

(B) Aedes

(D) Mansonian

7. American Tryptanosomiasis is also known as

(A) Chaga's disease*

(B) blackwater fever

(D) traveler's diarrhea

8. Which of the following is the most common liver fluke of man?

(A) Fasciola hepatica*

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

9. When Fasciolopsis buski infection is suspected, what specimen would you choose to send to the laboratory?

(A) urine

(B) stool*

(D) sputum

10. Which parasitic infection can be prevented by cooking crab and crayfish?

(A) Fasciola hepatica--water, water cress

(B) Clonorchis sinensis

(D) Paragonimus westermani*

11. Where are the adult Trichuris trichuria worms normally found?

(A) In the liver

(B) In the heart

(D) In the intestine*

12. What is most common hookworms that infect human?

(A) Endoliman nana

(B) Necator ameranus*

(D) Trichinella sprialis

13. Which of the parasitic infection can be transmitted via eating green vegetables and salad?

(A) Plasmodium vivax

(B) Necator ameranus

(D) Schistosoma japonicum

14. The reservoir for Taenia solium is

(A) pig*

(B) cattle

(D) human

15. Which of the following parasites can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Fasciolopsis buski

(B) Necator americanus

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

16. The role of mycologist studies about

(A) Virus

(B) fungi*

(D) bacteria

17. The mould of fungi based on classification of

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphological*

18. The characteristic of fungi is

(A) have chitin*

(B) have cellulose

(D) have photosynthetic

19. The following is a characteristic of yeast

(A) mucoid*

(B) velvety

(D) Powdery

20. What of the following is non-selective media for fungi growth in the laboratory?

(A) Mycosel agar

(B) CHROM agar

(D) Sabouraud dextrose agar*

21. How many days it takes for saprophytes fungi growth?

(A) 1-2 days

(B) 3-5 days*

(D) 14 days or more

22. The usual site of Tinea capitis lesion is the

(A) nails

(B) scalp*

(D) genital urinary

23. Which of the following organisms is the aetiological agent for Coccidioidomycosis?

(A) Candida albican

(B) Coccidioides immitis*

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. What type of sample can be used to diagnose Sporotrichosis?

(A) pus*

(B) hair

(D) feces

25. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test*

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

26. Which one of these steps can improve treatment for mycoses?

(A) early diagnosis*

(B) relative toxic therapy

(D) limiting diagnostic options

27. All the following diagnostic tests are used for Candida albicans EXCEPT

(A) ELISA test

(B) immunodiffusion test*

(D) identification germ tube test

28. What is common name of disease caused by Madurella spp.?

(A) Mycetoma*

(B) Coccidioidomycosis

(D) Vulvovaginal candidiasis

29. The common name of the disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii infection is

(A) Pityriasis

(B) Cave disease

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease*

30. Which of the following statements is TRUE about fungals infection?

(A) Tinea versicolor causes mild scaling, mottling of skin.*

(B) White piedra causes dark, hard concretions on scalp hairs.

(D) Black piedra is whitish or colored masses on the long hairs of the body.

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Compare and contrast between yeast and mould. (4 Marks)

b. Explain the characteristic of fungi. (6 Marks)

2. a. Determine FIVE (5) morphological characterization in study of fungus. (5 Marks)

b. Describe initial observations in the study of fungus isolates. (5 Marks)

3. a. Describe the general characteristics of Trematoda. (4 Marks)

b. Compare and contrast the method of transmission to human, location adult parasite in the human body and eggs of parasite between Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma haematobium. (6 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Discuss major types of medically important protozoa including name of protozoa, method of transmission to human, location adult parasite in the human body and draw the adult of protozoa. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss major types of medically important nematode including name of nematode, method of transmission to human, location adult parasite in the human body and draw the adult of nematode. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss on Candida albicans regarding characteristics, method of transmission to human, diseases caused and diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

August 2014

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. The association which is beneficial to one partner and harmful to the other partner is

(A) parasitism*

(B) symbiosis

(D) commensalism

2. Definitive host is also known as

(A) final*--primary

(B) initial

(D) secondary

3. The type of antibody response usually response for parasitic patients is the

(A) primary

(B) tolerance

(D) both primary and secondary

4. Transmission from mother to infant is called as

(A) facial

(B) genital

(D) congenital*

5. The non- characteristic of phylum apicomplexan is

(A) coccidian

(B) sporozoan

(D) alternating sexual and asexual generation

6. The amoeba causes the bloody diarrhea is the

(A) Entamoeba coli

(B) Entamoeba gingivalis

(D) Entamoeba hartmanni

7. The non-commensal amoeba is

(A) Entamoeba coli

(B) Entamoeba gingivalis

(D) Entamoeba hartmanni

8. Phylum platyhelminthese is a

(A) herniaphobia

(B) hermaphobia

(D) herniaphroditic

9. Chilomastix mesnili infection is located at

(A) skin

(B) lymph

(D) respiratory

10. The amoeba that commonly present with bacteria and white blood cell is

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Chilomastix mesnili

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis

11. Cestodes are

(A) round

(B) dorso flattened

(D) dorso ventrally flattened

12. Diphyllobothrium latum is

(A) cat tapeworm

(B) fish tapeworm

(D) crocodile tapeworm

13. The length of Taenia solium is

(A) 2-3 meters*, 4~8 m saginata

(B) 15-20 meters

(D) 15-20 centimeters

14. The number of Taenia saginata prolottids are

(A) 95-100

(B) 250-300

(D) 1000-2000*

15. Which of the following is TRUE regarding proglottid of Taenia saginata?

(A) motile

(B) non- motile

(D) not a characteristic for species identification

16. Which of the following tests would detect Echinococcus granulosus?

(A) Giemsa stain

(B) Wright’s stain

(D) Enzyme immunoassay

17. The fluke is including

(A) Schistosoma mansoni

(B) Opisthorchis veverini

(D) Ophiocordyceps sinenchia

18. Egg of Opistochis sinensis commonly found in

(A) feces

(B) blood

(D) sputum

19. The white blood cells that will increase upon Paragonimus westermani infection is

(A) basophils

(B) monocytes

(D) lymphocytes

20. Trematode may cause

(A) cyclist itch

(B) farmer itch

(D) swimmer itch*

21. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale are similar in

(A) having applique forms in the red cells

(B) having no malarial pigment and multiple ring

(D) having true stippling, do not have a relapse stage and infect old red cells

22. The most prevalent helminth to infect humans is

(A) Taenia saginata

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides

(D) Schistosoma mansoni

23. All of the following are examples of appropriate specimens for the recovery of fungi EXCEPT

(A) CSF

(B) swab*

(D) aspirate of exudate

24. Which clinical specimen uses potassium hydroxide direct mount for fungal examination?

(A) Skin

(B) CSF

(D) Bone marrow

25. The India Ink stain is used to detect

(A) Aspergillus niger in blood

(B) Candida albicans in body fluid

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF*

26. The first step for yeast isolate identification is

(A) catalase test

(B) germ tube test

(D) gram stain smear

27. Which of the following yeasts is characteristically positive for germ tube production?

(A) Candida albicans*

(B) Candida tropicalis

(D) Candida pseudotropicalis

28. Which form of dimorphic molds are found in infected tissue?

(A) Latent

(B) Yeast phase*

(D) Encapsulated

29. Which Aspergillus sp. recovered most often from sputum or bronchial mucus, is the cause of allergic pulmonary aspergillosis and invasive diseases?

(A) A. niger

(B) A. flavus

(D) All of the above

30. Carbohydrate assimilation tests that are used for the identification of yeast isolates by inoculating media are

(A) free of niger seed

(B) containing yeast extract

(D) containing carbohydrates

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Briefly describe the amoebas. (4 Marks)

b. State the FOUR (4) non-pathogenic intestinal amoeba. (4 Marks)

c. Name the pathogenic intestinal amoeba that can be transmitted via homosexual activity. (2 Marks)

2. a. Compare and contrast between Plasmodium ovale and Plasmodium vivax. (10 Marks)

3. a. Name one of the disease caused by Wuchereria bancroftii. (2 Marks)

b. Briefly describe the appearance of Brugia malayi in the thin blood film. (5 Marks)

c. Briefly describe on the stain used for detecting Brugia timori. (3 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Elaborate on Taenia solium’s life cycle with the aid of diagram (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss in general on how the helminth may be transmitted through the soil. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Elaborate the pathological yeast in general (20 Marks)

January 2014

SECTION A : OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS) Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. Laboratory diagnosis for Trichomonas vaginalis infections depends on the presence of the organism in the following specimen

(A) sputum

(B) skin scraping

(D) vaginal discharge*

2. Which of the following statements on infection by Toxoplasma gondii is FALSE?

(A) Cat is the definitive host.

(B) It may present as a congenital disease.

(D) Oocysts Toxoplasma gondii can survive in the environment for several months and are remarkably resistant to disinfectants.

3. In malaria the most common vector of Plasmodium falciparum is the ____________ mosquito.

(A) Aedes

(B) Culex

(D) Anopheles*

4. Which of the following parasites is transmitted to the definitive host by insect bites?

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Trypanosoma cruzi*

(D) Paragonimus westermani

5. How does man get infected with Fasciola hepatica?

(A) by ingesting redia in the snail

(B) by ingesting cercaria in the water

(D) by ingesting metacercaria in aquatic plant*

6. Single cell parasites are known as ____________.

(A) cestoda

(B) protozoa*

(D) trematoda

7. How does man normally get infected with hookworms?

(A) through mosquito bites

(B) through skin penetration*

(D) through ingestion of metacercaria

8. Which of the following parasites is a lung fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani*

9. What is the definition of parasite?

(A) The organism that lives within a dead organism

(B) The organism that lives within another living organism

(D) The organism that acquires some of its basic nutritional requirements through its intimate contact with another living organism*

10. The definitive host for Taenia saginata is ___________.

(A) pig

(B) fish

(D) rodent

11. Which of the following parasites is transmitted by the faecal-oral route?

(A) Brugia malayi

(B) Fasciolopsis buski*

(D) Trypanosoma brucei

12. What is the definition for intermediate host?

(A) An organism in, or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm.

(B) An organism in which the parasite lives during a period of its development only.*

(D) An organism that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected host to a non-infected host.

13. Which of the following specimens should be examined in order to detect the presence of Ascaris lumbricoides?

(A) feces*--sputum

(B) urine

(D) cerebrospinal fluid

14. The Echinococcus granulosus adults are located in the ___________ of man.

(A) brain

(B) heart

(D) intestine*

15. Which of the following organisms is detected from stool examination?

(A) Taenia solium*

(B) Trypanosoma brucei

(D) Trichomonas vaginalis--sexual

16. The classification of dimorphic fungi is based on ____________.

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of yeast?

(A) moist*

(B) cottony

(D) granular

18. What is the definition of heterotrophs?

(A) An organism that can cause harm to the host

(B) An organism that feeds on the living tissue of a host*

(D) An organism that can absorb food through hyphae that grow into the food source

19. Which of the following agar is a selective culture media?

(A) Oxgall agar*

(B) Czapek’s agar

(D) BHI with 5-10% sheep blood

20. Which of the morphological characterization of fungus is TRUE?

(A) size of thallus*

(B) shape of thallus

(D) colour of thallus

21. Which the following statements on collecting and transporting mycology specimen is FALSE?

(A) The culture container for the fungus must be properly labeled

(B) The sample to detect the fungus must be in sufficient quantity

(D) The sample to detect the fungus must be of material from the actual infection site

22. The usual site of Tinea unguium lesion is on the _____________.

(A) nails

(B) scalp

(D) scrotal regions

23. What is the fungus that causes coccidioidomycosis?

(A) Coccidioides immitis*

(B) Histoplasma capsulatum

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is not used to detect Blastomyces dermatitidis?

(A) immunodiffusion test*

(B) latex agglutination test

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

25. What type of sample can be used to diagnose aspergillosis?

(A) hair

(B) urine

(D) sputum*

26. Which one of these steps can improve treatment for mycoses?

(A) early diagnosis*

(B) relative toxic therapy

(D) limiting diagnostic options

27. All of the following are diagnostic tests for Coccidioides immitis EXCEPT

(A) culture

(B) complement fixation

(D) tube precipitin (IgM) test

28. Which of the following statements regarding Candida albicans is TRUE?

(A) Candida albicans is normal flora in the human lungs.

(B) Candida albicans is one of the important causes of cave disease.

(D) Candida albicans is transmitted to the definitive host by insect bites.

29. The common name of the disease caused by Pseudallescheria spp. infection is

(A) pityriasis

(B) mycetoma*

(D) rose-gardener’s disease

30. Which of the following ringworm cause Athlete’s foot disease?

(A) Tinea pedis*

(B) Tinea capitis

(D) Tinea versicolor

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS) Answer ALL questions.

1. During a rural school health program, a 7 year-old boy was noted to be anaemic. On stool examination the eggs of the organism were noted to have a characteristic bipolar plug.

a. Name the probable parasite involved. (2 Marks)

trichuris trichuria

b. Determine the method of transmission of the parasite to human. (1 Mark)

ingestion of eggs

c. Determine the location of adult parasite in the human body. (1 Mark)

colon, intestine

d. Draw the egg and adult of the parasite. (4 Marks)

e. What laboratory investigation is used to detect the parasite? (2 Marks)

stool O&P

eosinophilia

2. A 50 year-old man presented with a long history of scrotal and leg swelling resembling an elephant.

a. What is the likely disease the man is suffering from? (2 Marks)

elephantiasis

b. What is its vector of transmission? (1 Mark)

mosquito

c. What laboratory investigation is used to detect the parasite? (1 Mark)

microfilariae in blood

d. Determine the organism involved. (3 Marks)

wucheria

brugia malayi

malayi microfilariae

e. Briefly describe the control and preventive measures to be taken. (3 Marks)

3. a. Determine the samples from the human body that can be used to detect Histoplasma capsulatum. (2 Marks) b. Determine the laboratory investigations used to detect Histoplasma capsulatum. (4 Marks) c. Determine the laboratory investigations used to detect Candida albicans. (4 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question 1

Discuss on schistosomiasis. Include in your answer the an appropriate explanation regarding name of parasites, method of transmission to human, location of adult parasites in the human body, illustration of the egg of parasites and investigations of the parasites. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Write short notes on the following:

a) Amebiasis

b) Leishmaniasis

c) Ghiardosis

d) Trichomoniasis

(20 Marks)

Question 3

Explain the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolates. (20 Marks)

August 2013

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. Which of the following disease is caused by Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) malaria

(B) leishmaniasis

(D) African sleeping sickness*

2. What is the scientific name for pinworm?

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Wucheria bancrofti

(D) Enterobius vermicularis*

3. Which of the following organism is a vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?

(A) sand fly

(B) tsetse fly

(D) Anopheles mosquito

4. Which of the following parasites is transmitted to the definitive host by burrowing into the skin?

(A) Ghiardia lamblia

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

5. The following are in digene life cycle of trematodes EXCEPT

(A) egg

(B) larva*

(D) metacercaria

6. Which of the following parasites is a blood protozoa?

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Balantidium coli

(D) Plasmodium falciparum*

7. Which of the following parasites can cause Loeffler’s syndrome?

(A) Giardia sp

(B) Schistosoma sp

(D) Paragonimus sp

8. Which of the following parasites is a liver fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica*

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Paragonimus westermani

9. W hat is the definition of vector?

(A) The organism that lives within a dead organism.

(B) The organism that lives within another living organism.

(D) The organism that acquires some of its basic nutritional requirements through its intimate contact with another living organism.

10. Which of the following parasites is the pork tapeworm?

(A) Brugia malayi

(B) Taenia solium*

(D) Trichinella sprialis

11. The following parasites are transmitted by the faecal-oral route EXCEPT

(A) Trichuris trichuria

(B) Leishmania donovani*

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

12. What is the definition for definitive host?

(A) An organism in, or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm.

(B) An organism in which the parasite lives during one period of its life cycle.

(D) An organism that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected host to a non-infected host.

13. Diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides in human is done by detecting

(A) egg in the urine--stool

(B) redia in the feces

(D) microfilariae in the blood

14. Which of the following parasites can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Fasciolopsis buski

(B) Necator americanus

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following parasites can cause cysticercosis?

(A) Taenia solium*

(B) Trichinella sprialis

(D) Trypanosoma brucei

16. The classification of mould is based on

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

17. Mycoses caused by the following effect EXCEPT

(A) allergy

(B) colonization

(D) mycotoxicosis

18. What is the definition of saprophytes?

(A) An organism that can cause harm to the host.

(B) An organism that feeds on the living tissue of a host.

(D) Two organisms that enjoy mutually beneficial relationship.

19. Which of the following agar is a non-selective culture media?

(A) Oxgall agar

(B) Mycosel agar

(D) Niger seed agar.

20. The following morphological characterization of fungus are true EXCEPT

(A) size of thallus.*

(B) colour of thallus.

(D) topography of thallus.

21. Which one of the following statements about collecting and transporting mycology specimen is TRUE?

(A) The culture container for the fungus is not properly labeled.

(B) The sample to detect the fungus must be in sufficient quantity.*

(D) The sample to detect the fungus must be of material from the every part of human body.

22. The usual site of Tinea corporis lesion is the

(A) nails

(B) scalp

(D) genital urinary

23. What is the fungus that causes histoplasmosis?

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Histoplasma capsulatum*

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. Which one of the following serodiagnosis tests is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test*

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

25. What type of sample can be used to diagnose blastomycosis?

(A) hair

(B) urine

(D) sputum*

26. Which one of these steps can improve treatment for mycoses?

(A) early diagnosis*

(B) relative toxic therapy

(D) limiting diagnostic options

27. All of the following are diagnostic tests for Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT

(A) culture

(B) india ink

(D) identification Germ tube*

28. Which of the following statements regarding Candida albicans is NOT TRUE?

(A) Candida albicans is one of the important causes of cave disease.*

(B) Candida albicans is one of the important causes of vulvovaginitis.

(D) Candida albicans is normal flora of the oral cavity, genitalia, large intestine or skin of 20% of humans.

29. The common name of the disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii infection is

(A) pityriasis

(B) cave disease

(D) rose-gardener’s disease*

30. Which of the following statements are FALSE about fungal infection?

(A) Tinea versicolor causes mild scaling and mottling of skin.

(B) Black piedra causes dark, hard concretions on scalp hairs.

(D) Tinea unguium cause “jock itch” which affects the groin and the scrotal regions.*

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. a. Explain briefly on the major types of medically important systemic mycoses. (5 Marks)

b. Explain FIVE (5) morphological characteristics in the study of fungus. (5 Marks)

2. a. Compare and contrast between yeast and mould. (4 Marks)

b. Describe the functions of fungi. (6 Marks)

3. a. Determine the samples from the human body that can be used to detect Aspergillus fumigatus. (2 Marks)

b. Determine the laboratory diagnosis to detect Aspergillus fumigatus. (4 Marks)

c. Determine the laboratory diagnosis to detect Candida albicans. (4 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question 1

Discuss about schistosomiasis. Give an appropriate explanation regarding name of parasite, method of transmission to human, location of adult parasite in the human body, draw the eggs of parasite and diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Explain the major types of medically important nematode. Give an appropriate explanation regarding the names of nematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Describe the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolates. (20 Marks)

January 2013

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. Which of the following diseases caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?

(A) Malaria

(B) Leishmaniasis

(D) African sleeping sickness

2. What is the scientific name for hookworm?

(A) Trichinella sprialis

(B) Trichuris trichuria

(D) Ascaris lumbricoides

3. Which of the following organism is a vector for Plasmodium falciparum?

(A) Sand fly

(B) Tsetse fly

(D) Anopheles mosquito*

4. Which of the following parasites is transmitted to the definitive host by burrowing into the skin?

(A) Fasciola hepatica--metacercaria on water or water cress

(B) Fasciolopsis buski--vegetation

(D) Paragonimus westermani--undercooked crustaceans

5. The following are in digene life cycle of trematodes EXCEPT

(A) Redia

(B) Larva*

(D) Metacercaria

6. Which of the following parasites is a blood protozoa?

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Balantidium coli

(A) Entamoeba histolytica

7. Which of the following parasites can cause Loeffler’s syndrome?

(A) Ascaris*

(B) Giardia

(D) Paragonimus

8. Which of the following parasites is a lung fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica

(B) Fasciolopsis buski

(D) Schistosoma haematobium

9. What is the definition of ectoparasite?

(A) The organism that lives within a dead organism

(B) The organism that lives near another living organism

(D) The organism that lives on the external surface of another living organism*

10. Which of the following parasites is the beef tapeworm?

(A) Taenia solium

(B) Taenia saginata*

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

11. The following parasites are transmitted by the faecal-oral route EXCEPT

(A) Balantidium coli

(B) Plasmodium vivax*

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

12. What is the definition for vector?

(A) An organism that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected host to a non-infected host.*

(B) An organism in, or on, which the parasite lives and causes harm.

(D) An organism in which the adult or sexually mature stage of the parasite lives.

13. Diagnosis of Wucheria pacifica in human is by detection of

(A) egg in the urine

(B) redia in the feces

(D) microfilariae in the blood*

14. Which of the following parasites can cause hydatidosis?

(A) Taenia saginata

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides

(D) Echinococcus granulosus*

15. Which of the following parasites can cause cysticercosis?

(A) Taenia solium*

(B) Trypanosoma cruzi

(D) Schistosoma haematobium

16. The classification of yeast is based on its

(A) texture

(B) diversity

(D) morphology*

17. The following are types of disease caused by mycoses EXCEPT

(A) allergic

(B) colonization

(D) mycotoxicosis

18. What is the definition of Saprophytes?

(A) An organism that can cause harm to the host

(B) An organism that feeds on the living tissue of a host

(D) An organism that feed on dead tissues or organic waste*

19. Which of the following agar is a non- selective culture media?

(A) Oxgall agar*

(B) Czapek’s agar

(D) Brain heart infusion agar.

20. The following morphological characterizations of fungus are true EXCEPT

(A) size of thallus*

(B) colour of thallus

(D) topography of thallus

21. Which of the following statements about collection and transportation of mycology specimen is TRUE?

(A) The culture container for the fungus is not properly labeled.

(B) The culture container can be contaminated by other organism.

(D) The sample to detect the fungus must be material from the entire part of human body.

22. The usual site of Tinea pedis lesion is in the

(A) feet*

(B) scalp

(D) genital urinary

23. What is the species of fungus that causes Coccidioidomycosis?

(A) Coccidioides immitis*

(B) Aspergillus fumigatus

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans

24. Which of the following serodiagnosis test is used to detect Sporotrix schenckii?

(A) immunodiffusion test

(B) latex agglutination test

(D) immunofluorescent assay test

25. What is the type of sample used in the diagnosis of coccidioidomycosis?

(A) hair

(B) urine

(D) sputum*

26. Which one of these steps can improve the treatment of mycoses?

(A) early diagnosis*

(B) relatively toxic therapy

(D) limited diagnostic options

27. All of the following are diagnostic tests for Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT

(A) culture

(B) indian ink

(D) identification germ tube*

28. Which of the following statements regarding Candida albicans is NOT TRUE?

(A) one of the important causes of vulvovaginitis

(B) one of the important causes of rose-gardener’s disease*

(D) normal flora of the oral cavity, genitalia, large intestine or skin of 20% of humans.

29. The common name of the disease caused by Tinea versicolor infection is

(A) Pityriasis*

(B) Cave disease

(D) Black fever disease

30. The following statements are true about fungal infection EXCEPT

(A) Tinea versicolor causes mild scaling, mottling of skin.

(B) Black piedra causes dark, hard concretions on scalp hairs.

(D) Tinea manuum cause “jock itch” which affects the groin and the scrotal regions.*

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. a. Define fungi. (2 Marks)

b. Explain major types of medically important systemic mycoses. Briefly discuss types of systemic mycoses, name of the causative fungus, and method of transmission to human. (8 Marks)

2. a. Compare and contrast between yeast and mould. (4 Marks)

b. Describe the characteristic of fungi. (6 Marks)

3. a. Determine the samples from human body that can be used to detect Histoplasma capsulatum. (2 Marks)

b. Determine the laboratory diagnosis to detect Histoplasma capsulatum. (4 Marks)

c. Determine laboratory diagnosis to detect Candida albicans. (4 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question 1

Explain major types of medically important protozoa. Include the names of protozoa, diseases and its vector or method of transmission to human to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Explain major types of medically important nematode. Give an appropriate explanation regarding names of nematode, method of transmission to human and diagnosis to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Describe the preliminary and initial observation in the study of fungal isolates. (20 Marks)

July 2011

PART A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. The yeast classification is based on

(A) texture.

(B) diversity.

(D) morphological.*

2. Fungi can function as

(A) a lichen.*

(B) a vector.

(D) an important composers.

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of fungus?

(A) Fungus use seed to reproduce.

(B) Fungus are not photosynthetic.*

(D) Fungal cell walls do not have a chitin.

4. The following are selective media EXCEPT

(A) Oxgall agar.

(B) Czapek’s agar.*

(D) Niger seed agar.

5. The following are morphological characteristic of fungus EXCEPT

(A) size of thallus.*

(B) colour of thallus.

(D) topography of thallus.

6. Which of the following is NOT an associated in specimen collection and transportation of fungi?

(A) Specimen container must be properly labeled.

(B) Specimen must be material from the actual infection site.

(D) Specimen must be obtained to perform the culture or other techniques request.

7. All the following are diagnostic tests for Candida albicans EXCEPT

(A) ELISA test.

(B) germ tube test.

(D) latex agglutination test.

8. What is common name of disease cause by Histoplasma capsulatum?

(A) Cave disease.*

(B) Chaga’s disease.

(D) Black fever disease.

9. How many days are required for dermatophytes growth?

(A) 1-2 days.

(B) 3-5 days.

(D) 14 days or more.*

10. Which of the following is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans?

(A) CF test.

(B) IFA test.

(D) Latex agglutination test.*

11. What is the sample be used to diagnosis Aspergillosis?

(A) Hair.

(B) Urine.

(D) Sputum.*

12. Which of the following is a better treatment for mycoses?

(A) Low doses of antibiotic.

(B) High doses of antifungal.*

(D) High doses of natrium chloride fluid.

13. What is common name of disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii?

(A) Cave disease.

(B) Malaria disease.

(D) Rose-gardener’s disease.*

14. Lesions caused by Tinea unguium can be found with

(A) nail.*

(B) body.

(D) groin.

15. Which of the following causes Athlete’s foot disease?

(A) Tinea capitis.

(B) Tinea corporis.

(D) Tinea versicolor.

16. What is a fungus that causes coccidioidomycosis?

(A) Coccidioides immitis.*

(B) Aspergillus fumigates.

(D) Cryptococcus neoformans.

17. What the disease cause by Trypanosoma brucei?

(A) Malaria.

(B) Leishmaniasis.

(D) African sleeping sickness.*

18. What is scientific name for pinworm?

(A) Trichuris trichuria.

(B) Necator americanus.

(D) Enterobius vermicularis.*

19. What the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?

(A) Sand fly.

(B) Tsetse fly.

(D) Anopheles mosquito.

20. Which of the following parasite can be diagnosed using a blood sample?

(A) Plasmodium vivax.*

(B) Entamoeba histolytic.

(D) Schistosoma hematobium.

21. The following are phase of trematode life cycle EXCEPT

(A) Redia.

(B) Miracidium.

(D) Trypomastigotes.*

22. Which of the following causes Trichinosis?

(A) Taenia solium.

(B) Balantidium coli.

(D) Ascaris lumbricoides.

23. Which of the following is a liver fluke?

(A) Fasciola hepatica.*

(B) Schistosoma mansoni.

(D) Schistosoma haematobium.

24. An intermediate host may be defined as the organism

(A) that lives on the external surface of another living organism.

(B) in which the adult or sexually mature stage of the parasite lives.

(D) that transports a pathogenic organism from an infected to a non infected host.

25. Where can be isolated the adult Paragonimus westermani in the human body?

(A) Lung.*

(B) Liver.

(D) Brain.

26. Which of the following parasites is NOT a nematode?

(A) Taenia saginata.*

(B) Trichuris trichuria.

(D) Strongyloides stercoralis.

27. All the following TRUE on Taenia solium EXCEPT

(A) beef tapeworm.*

(B) pork tapeworm.

(D) Taenia solium can diagnosis through eggs in feces.

28. Which of the following is a vector for Plasmodium falciparum?

(A) Tsetse fly.

(B) Aedes mosquito.

(D) Anopheles mosquito.*

29. Which of the following is NOT a tapeworm?

(A) Taenia solium.

(B) Taenia saginata.

(D) Echinococcus granulosus.

30. How would you diagnosis Wucheria pacifica in human body?

(A) Egg in the urine.

(B) Redia in the feces.

(D) Microfilariae in the blood.*

PART B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. a. Define mycoses. (2 Marks)

b. Compare and contrast between yeast and mould. (8 Marks)

2. a. Define parasitic fungi. (2 Marks)

b. Describe the initial observation in the study of fungus isolates. (8 Marks)

3. Write short notes on TWO of the following

a. Enterobiasis.

b. Elephantiasis.

c. Loeffler’s syndrome.

(10 Marks)

PART C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question 1

Discuss major types of FIVE (5) medically important systemic and opportunistic mycoses regarding types of mycoses, name of it’s fungus, method of transmission to human and diagnosis. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Explain major types of FIVE (5) medically important protozoa regarding name of protozoa, it’s disease, vector or method of transmission to human and diagnosis. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Describe about schistosomiasis regarding name of parasites, method of transmission to human, locations adult parasite in the human body, draw the eggs of parasite and diagnosis. (20 Marks)

1/2010/2011

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