Basic Pathology MCQS

Davidson MCQS

https://www.slideshare.net/zaidalislam3/1000-mcqs-for-davidson

Materials & Question bank

https://www.homeobook.com/multiple-choice-questions-in-pathology-and-microbiology/

Structure questions

https://www.homeobook.com/question-bank-on-pathology-microbiology/

November 2020

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is an example of symptom?

(A) rash*--sign

(B) fever

(D) malaise

2. A post-mortem examination also known as

(A) surgery

(B) autopsy*

(D) colonoscopy

3. Which of the following describes pathogenesis?

(A) The study of causation.

(B) The development of a disease.*

(D) A medical term denoting the doctor's prediction of how a patient's disease will progress, and whether there is a chance of recovery.

4. Which of the following describes hypertrophy?

(A) Increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue*

(B) Decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue

(D) Decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue

5. Apoptosis means

(A) death of parenchymatous cells

(B) death of cells in a living organism

(D) controlled process of cellular self-destruction*

6. Which of the following CANNOT cause cell injury?

(A) genetic defects

(B) infections agents

(D) immunologic reactions

7. Necrosis is the death of

(A) parenchymatous cells only

(B) cells due to metabolic disorders

(D) cells and tissues in a living organism*

8. Which of following is TRUE about vascular changes associated with acute inflammation?

(A) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.*

(B) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and decreased vascular permeability.

(D) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability.

9. Which of following cells involve directly in acute inflammation?

(A) adipose

(B) fibroblasts

(D) macrophages*

10. Which of the following is NOT a local and systemic effect of inflammation?

(A) fever

(B) leukocytosis

(D) decreased pulse and blood pressure*

11. Which of the following describes metastasis?

(A) Spread of a malignant tumor from one site to another via blood or lymph.*

(B) Transformation or replacement of one adult cell type to another adult cell type.

(D) The process helps to eliminate unwanted cells by an internally programmed series of events effected by dedicated gene products.

12. Which of the following is a benign epithelial tumors?

(A) sarcoma

(B) adenoma*

(D) leiomyoma

13. The characteristic of dysplasia is based on

(A) reversible

(B) no mutations necessary

(D) the presence of genetic mutations beginning the development of a neoplasm*

14. Which of the following microbe is associated with malignant liver tumors?

(A) Hepatitis B virus*

(B) Epstein-Barr virus--Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodkin's lymphoma, B-cell lymphoma

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

15. Which of the following is a complication of liver cirrhosis as result of increase fluid in interstitium?

(A) ascites

(B) tumour

(D) encephalitis*

16. Which of the following is described as an increase of blood volume in particular tissue?

(A) necrosis

(B) hyperemia*

(D) chronic inflammation

17. Which of the following can cause embolism?

(A) Increase fluid in interstitium.

(B) Intravital intravascular blood clotting.

(D) Detached intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass carried by blood to distant site from point of origin.*

18. Which of the following is a factor can that cause thrombosis?

(A) hypercoagulability*--endothelial injury, stasis or turbulence of blood flow

(B) lymphatic drainage

(D) plasma colloid osmotic pressure

19. Which of the following disease is caused from hyperactivity of the adrenal glands and the over secretion of the Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) hormone?

(A) Cretinism

(B) Acromegaly

(D) Cushing’s syndrome*

20. Which of the following hormone can cause hypoglycemia?

(A) insulin*

(B) prolactin

(D) calcitonin

21. Which of the following type of hypersensitivity is predominantly that can cause major drawback to graft transplantation?

(A) type I hypersensitivity

(B) type II hypersensitivity

(D) type IV hypersensitivity*

22. Which of the following disease that can affect T-cell population and macrophage function?

(A) malaria

(B) acne vulgaris

(D) lymphogranuloma venereum*

23. Which of the following disease is caused by immunodeficiency disorders?

(A) aspergillosis

(B) vulvovaginitis

(D) agammaglobulinemia*

24. What is the disorder that cause cystic fibrosis?

(A) genetic disorders*

(B) alimentary disorders

(D) immunodeficiency disorders

25. Which of the following disease is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21?

(A) hemophilia

(B) cystic fibrosis

(D) sickle- cell disease

26. Which of the following is a TRUE about sickle-cell disease?

(A) Have an extra copy of chromosome 10.

(B) Affects hemoglobin, protein in blood that carries oxygen.*

(D) Do not produce one of the proteins needed for normal blood clotting.--hemophilia

27. Which of the following is caused by bone marrow does not produce enough red blood cell?

(A) Aplastic anemia*

(B) Pernicious anemia

(D) Hemorrhagic anemia

28. Which of the following microbe can cause infectious mononucleosis?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Candida albicans

(D) Streptococcus pyogenes

29. An infection enters the blood stream can cause

(A) leukemia

(B) pityriasis

(D) thrombocytopenia

30. Which of the following substances can cause jaundice?

(A) mucus

(B) bilirubin*

(D) hemoglobin

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Identify FOUR (4) characteristic signs of inflammation. (4 Marks)

b. Explain the importance of pathology. (6 Marks)

2. a. Describe causes of genetic disorders. (4 Marks)

b. Compare between benign and malignant tumour. (6 Marks)

3. a. Determine the differences between diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus. (4 Marks)

b. Describe briefly about leukemia. (6 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.

Question 1

Describe FOUR (4) types of cellular adaptation to physiologic and pathologic conditions. (10 Marks)

Question 2

Explain pathology of shock. (10 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss the concept of hypersensitivity disorders. (20 Marks)

November 2019

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is an example of symptom?

(A) rash*

(B) fever

(D) malaise

2. A post-mortem examination also known as

(A) surgery

(B) autopsy*

(D) colonoscopy

3. Which of the following describes pathogenesis?

(A) The study of causation.

(B) The development of a disease.*

(D) A medical term denoting the doctor's prediction of how a patient's disease will progress, and whether there is a chance of recovery.

4. Which of the following describes hypertrophy?

(A) Increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue*

(B) Decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue

(D) Decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue

5. Apoptosis means

(A) death of parenchymatous cells

(B) death of cells in a living organism

(D) controlled process of cellular self-destruction*

6. Which of the following CANNOT cause cell injury?

(A) genetic defects

(B) infections agents

(D) immunologic reactions

7. Necrosis is the death of

(A) parenchymatous cells only

(B) cells due to metabolic disorders

(D) cells and tissues in a living organism*

8. Which of following is TRUE about vascular changes associated with acute inflammation?

(A) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.*

(B) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and decreased vascular permeability.

(D) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability.

9. Which of following cells involve directly in acute inflammation?

(A) adipose

(B) fibroblasts

(D) macrophages*--leukocytes, lymphocytes

10. Which of the following is NOT a local and systemic effect of inflammation?

(A) fever

(B) leukocytosis

(D) decreased pulse and blood pressure*

11. Which of the following describes metastasis?

(A) Spread of a malignant tumor from one site to another via blood or lymph.*

(B) Transformation or replacement of one adult cell type to another adult cell type.

(D) The process helps to eliminate unwanted cells by an internally programmed series of events effected by dedicated gene products.

12. Which of the following is a benign epithelial tumors?

(A) sarcoma

(B) adenoma*

(D) leiomyoma

13. The characteristic of dysplasia is based on

(A) reversible

(B) no mutations necessary

(D) the presence of genetic mutations beginning the development of a neoplasm*

14. Which of the following microbe is associated with malignant liver tumors?

(A) Hepatitis B virus*

(B) Epstein-Barr virus

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

15. Which of the following is a complication of liver cirrhosis as result of increase fluid in interstitium?

(A) ascites

(B) tumour

(D) encephalitis*

16. Which of the following is described as an increase of blood volume in particular tissue?

(A) necrosis

(B) hyperemia*

(D) chronic inflammation

17. Which of the following can cause embolism?

(A) Increase fluid in interstitium.

(B) Intravital intravascular blood clotting.

(D) Detached intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass carried by blood to distant site from point of origin.*

18. Which of the following is a factor can that cause thrombosis?

(A) hypercoagulability*

(B) lymphatic drainage

(D) plasma colloid osmotic pressure

19. Which of the following disease is caused from hyperactivity of the adrenal glands and the over secretion of the Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) hormone?

(A) Cretinism

(B) Acromegaly

(D) Cushing’s syndrome*

20. Which of the following hormone can cause hypoglycemia?

(A) insulin*

(B) prolactin

(D) calcitonin

21. Which of the following type of hypersensitivity is predominantly that can cause major drawback to graft transplantation?

(A) type I hypersensitivity

(B) type II hypersensitivity

(D) type IV hypersensitivity*

22. Which of the following disease that can affect T-cell population and macrophage function?

(A) malaria

(B) acne vulgaris

(D) lymphogranuloma venereum*

23. Which of the following disease is caused by immunodeficiency disorders?

(A) aspergillosis

(B) vulvovaginitis

(D) agammaglobulinemia*

24. What is the disorder that cause cystic fibrosis?

(A) genetic disorders*

(B) alimentary disorders

(D) immunodeficiency disorders

25. Which of the following disease is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21?

(A) hemophilia

(B) cystic fibrosis

(D) sickle- cell disease

26. Which of the following is a TRUE about sickle-cell disease?

(A) Have an extra copy of chromosome 10.

(B) Affects hemoglobin, protein in blood that carries oxygen.*

(D) Do not produce one of the proteins needed for normal blood clotting.

27. Which of the following is caused by bone marrow does not produce enough red blood cell?

(A) Aplastic anemia*

(B) Pernicious anemia

(D) Hemorrhagic anemia

28. Which of the following microbe can cause infectious mononucleosis?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Candida albicans

(D) Streptococcus pyogenes

29. An infection enters the blood stream can cause

(A) leukemia

(B) pityriasis

(D) thrombocytopenia

30. Which of the following substances can cause jaundice?

(A) mucus

(B) bilirubin*

(D) hemoglobin

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Determine FOUR (4) characteristic signs of inflammation. (4 Marks)

b. Explain the importance of pathology. (6 Marks)

2. a. Determine causes of genetic disorders (4 Marks)

b. Determine the differences between benign and malignant tumour. (6 Marks)

3. a. Determine the differences between diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus. (4 Marks)

b. Describe briefly about leukemia (6 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. Discuss pathology of shock. (10 Marks)

2. a. Describe about the concept of type I hypersensitivity disorders. (5 Marks)

b. Describe about the concept of type IV hypersensitivity disorders. (5 Marks)

3. Describe FOUR (4) types of cellular adaptation to physiologic and pathologic conditions. (20 Marks)

April 2019

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is an example of sign?

(A) pus*

(B) pain

(D) malaise

2. Which of the following describes prognosis?

(A) The study of causation.

(B) The development of a disease.

(D) A medical term denoting the doctor's prediction of how a patient's disease will progress, and whether there is a chance of recovery.*

3. Which of the following describes hyperplasia?

(A) increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue.

(B) increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.*

(D) decrease in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.

4. Which of the following describes irreversible cell injury?

(A) fatty changes

(B) cellular swelling

(D) increase eosinophilia*

5. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the outcome of infection?

(A) host resistance

(B) virulence of organism

(D) numbers of invading organisms

6. Which of the following microbe is associated with some lymphomas and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Epstein-Barr virus*

(D) Human immunodeficiency virus

7. A systemic hypoperfusion due to reduction of cardiac output or effective blood volume circulation is known as

(A) shock*

(B) ischemia

(D) hyperemia

8. Which of the following disease is caused from hyposecretion of the growth hormone of the pituitary gland?

(A) cretinism--TH

(B) dwarfism*

(D) acromegaly--excess GH

9. Which of the following can cause Addison’s disease?

(A) hyposecretion calcitonin and oxytocin

(B) hyposecretion cortisol and aldosterone*

(D) hypersecretion cortisol and aldosterone

10. Hashimoto’s disease also called

(A) hypoglycemia

(B) hyperglycemia

(D) hyperthyroidism

11. Which of the following can cause type I hypersensitivity?

(A) Immediate IgA-Mediated

(B) Immediate IgE-Mediated

(D) Immediate IgM-Mediated

12. Which of the following type of hypersensitivity is cause by complement-fixing antibodies react with cell surface antigens causing cell injury or death?

(A) type I hypersensitivity

(B) type II hypersensitivity

(D) type IV hypersensitivity

13. The example of type II hypersensitivity is

(A) genital herpes

(B) Whooping cough

(D) hemolytic disease of the newborn

14. What disorder causes hemophilia?

(A) genetic disorder*

(B) respiratory disorder

(D) immunodeficiency disorder

15. Which of the following disease is caused by recessive allele on one chromosome that is the result of a mutation in which 3 base pairs are removed from a DNA molecule?

(A) hemophilia

(B) cystic fibrosis*

(D) sickle- cell disease

16. Which of the following is a TRUE about Down syndrome?

(A) have an extra copy of chromosome 10.*

(B) have some degree of mental retardation.

(D) produces abnormally thick mucus in the lungs and intestines.--cystic fibrosis

17. Which of the following anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?

(A) aplastic anemia

(B) sickle cell anemia

(D) hemorrhagic anemia

18. Large numbers of abnormal white blood cells fill the bone marrow and sometimes enter the bloodstream can cause

(A) leukemia*

(B) sarcoidosis

(D) myxoedema

19. Which of the following can cause thrombocytopenia?

(A) low production of platelets*

(B) high production of bilirubin

(D) low production of hemoglobin

20. Which of the following is NOT a etiology of hypertension?

(A) obesity

(B) low sugar intake*

(D) high sodium ion intake

21. Which of the following is a respiratory disorder?

(A) leprosy

(B) rhinitis*

(D) acromegaly

22. Which of following is a microbe can cause oral inflammation?

(A) Ghiardia lamblia--small intestine

(B) Candida albicans*--GIT

(D) Leishmania donovani

23. An inflammation of the stomach and intestines known as

(A) sinusitis

(B) meningitis

(D) gastroenteritis*

24. The Helicobacter pylori can cause

(A) rhinitis

(B) jaundice

(A) atherosclerosis

25. A yellow or orange discoloration of the skin, tissues, and the whites of the eyes, is caused by a build-up of bilirubin known as

(A) rhinitis

(B) jaundice*

(D) hyperglycemia

26. Which of the following is a TRUE about cholecystitis?

(A) an inflammation of the gallbladder

(B) an inflammation of the urinary bladder

(C) a disorder of carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism resulting from insufficient insulin production by the pancreas*

(D) when feces remain in the colon too long, with excessive reabsorption of water; they then become hard and dry

27. Pyelonephritis is inflammation of the

(A) ureter

(B) kidney*

(D) renal parenchyma

28. Dysuria means

(A) discolored urine

(B) pain on urination*

(D) an increased volume of urine produced

29. Which of the following is a symptom of meningitis?

(A) drowsiness*

(B) pain in the chest

(D) excessive thirst and hunger

30. Which microorganism can cause complication of acute pyogenic meningitis?

(A) Proteus mirabilis

(B) Clostridium perfringens

(D) Streptococcus pneumoniae*--e. coli, h. influenzae, neisseria meningitis

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define pathology. (2 Marks)

b. Determine FOUR (4) causes of cell injury. (4 Marks)

c. Compare necrosis and apoptosis. (4 Marks)

2. a. Define metastasis. (2 Marks)

b. List THREE (3) microscopic features of tumors. (3 Marks)

c. Compare the difference between metaplasia and dysplasia. (5 Marks)

3. a. Define angina pectoris. (2 Marks)

b. Determine FOUR (4) symptoms of angina pectoris. (4 Marks)

c. Determine FOUR (4) risk factors for angina pectoris. (4 Marks)

SECTION C : SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. Discuss pathology of pneumonia. (10 Marks)

2. Explain about characteristic signs, local and systemic effects of inflammation. (10 Marks)

3. Describe briefly about the following circulatory disorders.

a. Edema (5 Marks)

b. Hemorrhage (5 Marks)

c. Thrombosis (5 Marks)

d. Embolism (5 Marks)

September 2018

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. The definition of a disorder is

(A) disturbance in structure or function or both, resulting from failure in development or exogenous factors*

(B) an objective indication of some medical fact or quality that is detected by a physician during a physical examination of a patient

(C) the rate of which certain events occur, as the number of new cases of a specific disease occurring during a certain period in a population at risk

(D) a morbid entity ordinarily characterized by two or more of the following criteria: recognized etiologic agent(s), identifiable group of signs and symptoms, or consistent anatomic alterations.

2. A forensic autopsy is carried out

(A) for research purposes

(B) if the cause of death is unknown

(D) if the cause of death is criminally related*

3. Cell aging is caused by

(A) genetic factors

(B) environmental factors

(D) All of the above*

4. Which of the following events occur in necrosis?

(A) breakdown of nucleus

(B) rupture of cell membrane

(D) intact and functional organelles

5. Atrophy is defined as

(A) shrinkage in the size of the cell by the loss of cell substance*

(B) increase in the size of cells, resulting in an increase in the size of the organ

(D) reversible change in which one adult cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is replaced by another adult cell type

6. Which of the following is NOT a description of acute inflammation?

(A) exudation of fluid causes oedema

(B) occur within a short duration of time

(D) emigration of leukocytes to the injured area

7. Leukocyte extravastation refers to

(A) phagocytosis of microbes

(B) increase permeability of blood vessels

(D) movement of leukocytes from blood within the capillaries into the tissues

8. Which of the following tissue heal fastest when injured?

(A) bone tissue

(B) muscle tissue

(D) epidermis of skin

9. The term adenoma refers to benign tumours

(A) with large cystic masses

(B) originating from osteoblasts

(D) with tightly clustered small glands*

10. Malignant tumours may spread through the following pathway/s

(A) lymphatic spread

(B) hematogenous spread

(D) All of the above*

11. Which of the following is a cause for oedema?

(A) lymphatic obstruction

(B) decrease in plasma sodium (Na+)

(D) decreased hydrostatic pressure in blood

12. Which of the following colour changes in a hematoma is a CORRECT matched pair?

(A) black – iron deposited in tissue

(B) red-blue – degraded erythrocytes

(D) gold-brown – haemoglobin converted to bilirubin*

13. Clinical manifestation of growth hormone adenoma include

(A) acromegaly*

(B) galactorrhea

(D) Cushing syndrome

14. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathogenesis of Type I diabetes mellitus?

(A) T lymphocytes react against β-cell antigens and cause cell damage.

(B) Insulin resistance due to genetic defects of the insulin receptor and insulin signaling pathway.

(D) Bacterial infection causes tissue damage and inflammation releasing β-cell antigens or virus produce proteins that mimic self-antigens.

15. Exophthalmos in thyrotoxicosis refers to

(A) facial oedema

(B) bulging of eyes

(D) enlarged thyroid

16. Delayed-type hypersensitivity or T-cell mediated is a reaction of which type of hypersensitivity?

(A) Type I

(B) Type II

(D) Type IV

17. The mechanism involved in the development of autoimmune disease include

(A) complement activation causing lysis of cells

(B) the release of histamine from mast cells causing inflammation

(D) the formation of insoluble protein antigen complexes that destroy the blood vessel wall

18. Which of the following is NOT a sign of primary immunodeficiency?

(A) recurrent, deep skin or organ abcesses

(B) more than 4 ear infections within 1 year

(D) persistent thrush in mouth or fungal infection on skin

19. Trisomies may be the result of

(A) deletion short arm of chromosome

(B) mutation on the X-linked chromosome*

(D) failure of separation (non-disjunction) of homologous chromosomes

20. Clinical manifestation of Turner syndrome include

(A) problems in handwriting, drawing, gait apraxia

(B) hyperflexibility (excessive ability to flex joints)

(D) the presence of female external genitalia and internal ducts, but ovaries are rudimentary

21. The blood smear of iron deficiency anaemia shows

(A) microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells

(B) macrocytic and hyperchromic red blood cells

(D) normocytic and normochromic red blood cells

22. The difference in the clinical features of myocardial infarction and angina include

(A) sweating

(B) shortness of breath

(D) chest pain may be referred to the left arm

23. Pathological findings in acute rhinitis include

(A) atrophy of mucous membrane

(B) submucosa replaced by fibrous tissue

(D) nasal epithelium becomes squamous metaplasia

24. Which of the following is NOT a cause of pneumonia?

(A) irradiation

(B) cold weather

(D) inhalation of liquid

25. The term colitis refers to the inflammation of the

(A) colon*

(B) pharynx

(D) oesophagus

26. The MOST common cause of cirrhosis is

(A) viral hepatitis*

(B) biliary disease

(D) alcoholic liver disease*

27. Which clinical syndrome is described as loss of protein in the urine?

(A) acute renal failure

(B) nephritic syndrome

(D) chronic renal failure

28. The MOST common cause of glomerulonephritis is

(A) toxins

(B) hypertension

(D) immune reactions

29. Encephalitis is the inflammation of the

(A) brain

(B) neuron

(D) spinal cord

30. The autopsy findings of Alzheimer’s disease include

(A) enlarged lateral ventricles

(B) widen sulci and shrinkage of the gyri

(D) All of the above

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define embolus. (2 Marks)

b. Identify THREE (3) types of embolus. (3 Marks)

2. a. Define restrictive lung disease. (2 Marks)

b. State the reasons for the manifestation of breathlessness, wheezing and chest tightness in asthma. (6 Marks)

3. a. Identify THREE (3) risk factors associated with bladder cancer. (3 Marks)

b. List FOUR (4) clinical features of bladder cancer. (4 Marks)

4. a. Identify the TWO (2) types of cerebrovascular disease and their causes. (4 Marks)

b. State THREE (3) physical deficits after a stroke. (6 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

a. Discuss the grading of tumours. (10 Marks)

b. Discuss the staging of tumours. (10 Marks)

Question 2

a. Identify the risk factors for the development of lymphoma. (10 Marks)

b. Describe the pathogenesis and clinical features of Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. (10 Marks)

Question 3

a. Identify FIVE (5) aetiological factors associated with chronic gastritis. (10 Marks)

b. Describe the pathogenesis of gastric cancer. (10 Marks)

February 2018

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is an example of symptom?

(A) rash*

(B) fever

(D) malaise

2. A post-mortem examination also known as

(A) surgery

(B) autopsy*

(D) colonoscopy

3. Which of the following describes pathogenesis?

(A) the study of causation

(B) the development of a disease*

(D) a medical term denoting the doctor's prediction of how a patient's disease will progress, and whether there is a chance of recovery

4. Which of the following describes hypertrophy?

(A) increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue.*

(B) decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue.

(D) decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue.

5. Apoptosis means

(A) death of parenchymatous cells.

(B) death of cells in a living organism.

(D) controlled process of cellular self-destruction.*

6. Which of the following CANNOT cause cell injury?

(A) genetic defects

(B) infections agents

(D) immunologic reactions

7. Necrosis is the death of

(A) parenchymatous cells only.

(B) cells due to metabolic disorders.

(D) cells and tissues in a living organism.

8. Which of following is TRUE about vascular changes associated with acute inflammation?

(A) vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and increased vascular permeability*

(B) vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and decreased vascular permeability

(D) vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability

9. Which of following cells involve directly in acute inflammation?

(A) adipose

(B) fibroblasts

(D) macrophages*

10. Which of the following is NOT a local and systemic effect of inflammation?

(A) fever

(B) leukocytosis

(D) decreased pulse and blood pressure*

11. Which of the following describes metastasis?

(A) spread of a malignant tumor from one site to another via blood or lymph.*

(B) transformation or replacement of one adult cell type to another adult cell type.

(D) the process helps to eliminate unwanted cells by an internally programmed series of events effected by dedicated gene products.

12. Which of the following is a benign epithelial tumors?

(A) sarcoma

(B) adenoma*

(D) leiomyoma

13. The characteristic of dysplasia is based on

(A) reversible.

(B) no mutations necessary.

(D) the presence of genetic mutations beginning the development of a neoplasm.*

14. Which of the following microbe is associated with malignant liver tumors?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Epstein-Barr virus

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

15. Which of the following is a complication of liver cirrhosis as result of increase fluid in interstitium?

(A) ascites

(B) tumour

(D) encephalitis

16. Which of the following is described as an increase of blood volume in particular tissue?

(A) necrosis

(B) hyperemia

(D) chronic inflammation

17. Which of the following can cause embolism?

(A) increase fluid in interstitium

(B) intravital intravascular blood clotting

(D) detached intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass carried by blood to distant site from point of origin

18. Which of the following is a factor can that cause thrombosis?

(A) hypercoagulability

(B) lymphatic drainage

(D) plasma colloid osmotic pressure

19. Which of the following disease is caused from hyperactivity of the adrenal glands and the over secretion of the Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) hormone?

(A) Cretinism

(B) Acromegaly

(D) Cushing’s syndrome

20. Which of the following hormone can cause hypoglycemia?

(A) insulin

(B) prolactin

(D) calcitonin

21. Which of the following type of hypersensitivity is predominantly that can cause major drawback to graft transplantation?

(A) type I hypersensitivity

(B) type II hypersensitivity

(D) type IV hypersensitivity

22. Which of the following disease that can affect T-cell population and macrophage function?

(A) malaria

(B) acne vulgaris

(D) lymphogranuloma venereum

23. Which of the following disease is caused by immunodeficiency disorders?

(A) aspergillosis

(B) vulvovaginitis

(D) agammaglobulinemia

24. What is the disorder that cause cystic fibrosis?

(A) genetic disorders

(B) alimentary disorders

(D) immunodeficiency disorders

25. Which of the following disease is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21?

(A) hemophilia

(B) cystic fibrosis

(D) sickle- cell disease

26. Which of the following is a TRUE about sickle-cell disease?

(A) have an extra copy of chromosome 10.

(B) affects hemoglobin, protein in blood that carries oxygen.

(D) do not produce one of the proteins needed for normal blood clotting.

27. Which of the following is caused by bone marrow does not produce enough red blood cell?

(A) Aplastic anemia

(B) Pernicious anemia

(D) Hemorrhagic anemia

28. Which of the following microbe can cause infectious mononucleosis?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Candida albicans

(D) Streptococcus pyogenes

29. An infection enters the blood stream can cause

(A) leukemia

(B) pityriasis

(D) thrombocytopenia

30. Which of the following substances can cause jaundice?

(A) mucus

(B) bilirubin*

(D) hemoglobin

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Determine FOUR (4) characteristic signs of inflammation. (4 Marks)

b. Explain the importance of pathology. (6 Marks)

2. a. Determine causes of genetic disorders. (4 Marks)

b. Determine the differences between benign and malignant tumour. (6 Marks)

3. a. Determine the differences between diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus. (4 Marks)

b. Describe briefly about leukemia. (6 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Describe FOUR (4) types of cellular adaptation to physiologic and pathologic conditions. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss pathology of shock. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Describe about the concept of hypersensitivity disorders. (20 Marks)

September 2017

1. Which of the following is an example of sign?

(A) pus

(B) pain

(D) malaise

2. Which of the following describes prognosis?

(A) The study of causation.

(B) The development of a disease.

(D) A medical term denoting the doctor's prediction of how a patient's disease will progress, and whether there is a chance of recovery.*

3. Which of the following describes hyperplasia?

(A) increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue.

(B) increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.*

(D) decrease in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.

4. Which of the following describes irreversible cell injury?

(A) fatty changes

(B) cellular swelling

(D) increase eosinophilia

5. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the outcome of infection?

(A) host resistance

(B) virulence of organism

(D) numbers of invading organisms

6. Which of the following microbe is an associated with some lymphomas and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Epstein-Barr virus

(D) Human immunodeficiency virus

7. A systemic hypoperfusion due to reduction of cardiac output or effective blood volume circulation known as

(A) shock.

(B) ischemia.

(D) hyperemia.

8. Which of the following disease is caused from hyposecretion of the growth hormone of the pituitary gland?

(A) dwarfism

(B) cretinism

(D) acromegaly

9. Which of the following can cause Addison’s disease?

(A) hyposecretion calcitonin and oxytocin

(B) hyposecretion cortisol and aldosterone

(D) hypersecretion cortisol and aldosterone

10. Hashimoto’s disease also called

(A) hypoglycemia

(B) hyperglycemia

(D) hyperthyroidism

11. Which of the following can cause type I hypersensitivity?

(A) Immediate IgA-Mediated

(B) Immediate IgE-Mediated

(D) Immediate IgM-Mediated

12. Which of the following type of hypersensitivity is cause by complement-fixing

antibodies react with cell surface antigens causing cell injury or death?

(A) type I hypersensitivity

(B) type II hypersensitivity

(D) type IV hypersensitivity

13. The example of type II hypersensitivities is

(A) genital herpes

(B) Whooping cough

(D) hemolytic disease of the newborn

14. What is the disorder can cause hemophilia?

(A) genetic disorder*

(B) respiratory disorder

(D) immunodeficiency disorder

15. Which of the following disease is caused by recessive allele on one chromosome that is the result of a mutation in which 3 base pairs are removed from a DNA molecule?

(A) hemophilia

(B) cystic fibrosis

(D) sickle- cell disease

16. Which of the following is a TRUE about Down syndrome?

(A) have an extra copy of chromosome 10.

(B) have some degree of mental retardation.

(D) produces abnormally thick mucus in the lungs and intestines.

17. Which of the following anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?

(A) aplastic anemia

(B) sickle cell anemia

(D) hemorrhagic anemia

18. Large numbers of abnormal white blood cells fill the bone marrow and sometimes enter

the bloodstream can cause

(A) leukemia.

(B) sarcoidosis.

(D) myxoedema.

19. Which of the following can cause thrombocytopenia?

(A) low production of platelets

(B) high production of bilirubin

(D) low production of hemoglobin

20. Which of the following is NOT a etiology of hypertension?

(A) obesity

(B) low sugar intake

(D) high sodium ion intake

21. Which of the following is a respiratory disorder?

(A) leprosy

(B) rhinitis

(D) acromegaly

22. Which of following is a microbe can cause oral inflammation?

(A) Ghiardia lamblia

(B) Candida albicans

(D) Leishmania donovani

23. An inflammation of the stomach and intestines known as

(A) sinusitis.

(B) meningitis.

(D) gastroenteritis.

24. The Helicobacter pylori can cause

(A) rhinitis.

(B) jaundice.

(A) atherosclerosis.

25. Which of the following describes jaundice?

(B) Delayed hypersensitivities caused by cell-mediated immunity

(D) When the fluid contents of the small intestine are rushed through the large intestine, causing watery stools.

(E) A yellow or orange discoloration of the skin, tissues, and the whites of the eyes,is caused by a build-up of bilirubin.*

26. Which of the following is a TRUE about cholecystitis?

(A) an inflammation of the gallbladder.*

(B) an inflammation of the urinary bladder.

(C) a disorder of carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism resulting from insufficient insulin production by the pancreas.

(D) when feces remain in the colon too long, with excessive reabsorption of water; they then become hard and dry.

27. Pyelonephritis is inflammation of the

(A) ureter.

(B) kidney.

(D) renal parenchyma.

28. Dysuria means

(A) discolored urine.

(B) pain on urination.*

(D) an increased volume of urine produced.

29. Which of the following is a symptom of meningitis?

(A) Jaundice

(B) Dysentery

(D) Pyelonephritis

30. Which microorganism can cause complication of acute pyogenic meningitis?

(A) Proteus mirabilis

(B) Clostridium perfringins

(D) Streptococcus pneumoniae*

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define pathology. (2 Marks)

b. Determine FOUR (4) causes of cell injury. (4 Marks)

c. Explain the difference between necrosis and apoptosis. (4 Marks)

2. a. Define metastasis. (2 Marks)

b. List THREE (3) microscopic features of tumors. (3 Marks)

c. Explain the difference between metaplasia and dysplasia. (5 Marks)

3. a. Define angina pectoris. (2 Marks)

b. Determine FOUR (4) symptoms of angina pectoris. (4 Marks)

c. Determine FOUR (4) risk factors for angina pectoris. (4 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Explain about characteristic signs, local and systemic effects of inflammation. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss briefly about the following circulatory disorders.

a. Edema

b. Hemorrhage

c. Thrombosis

d. Embolism (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss pathology of pneumonia. (20 Marks)

January 2017

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is an example of symptom?

(A) rash

(B) fever

(D) malaise

2. A post-mortem examination also known as

(A) surgery

(B) autopsy

(D) colonoscopy

3. Which of the following describes pathogenesis?

(A) The study of causation.

(B) The development of a disease.

(D) A medical term denoting the doctor's prediction of how a patient's disease will progress, and whether there is a chance of recovery.

4. Which of the following describes hypertrophy?

(A) Increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue

(B) Decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue

(D) Decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue

5. Apoptosis means

(A) death of parenchymatous cells

(B) death of cells in a living organism

(D) controlled process of cellular self-destruction

6. Which of the following CANNOT cause cell injury?

(A) genetic defects

(B) infections agents

(D) immunologic reactions

7. Necrosis is the death of

(A) parenchymatous cells only

(B) cells due to metabolic disorders

(D) cells and tissues in a living organism

8. Which of following is TRUE about vascular changes associated with acute inflammation?

(A) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

(B) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasodilation and decreased vascular permeability.

(D) Vascular changes associated with acute inflammation include vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability.

9. Which of following cells involve directly in acute inflammation?

(A) adipose

(B) fibroblasts

(D) macrophages

10. Which of the following is NOT a local and systemic effect of inflammation?

(A) fever

(B) leukocytosis

(D) decreased pulse and blood pressure

11. Which of the following describes metastasis?

(A) Spread of a malignant tumor from one site to another via blood or lymph.

(B) Transformation or replacement of one adult cell type to another adult cell type.

(D) The process helps to eliminate unwanted cells by an internally programmed series of events effected by dedicated gene products.

12. Which of the following is a benign epithelial tumors?

(A) sarcoma

(B) adenoma

(D) leiomyoma

13. The characteristic of dysplasia is based on

(A) reversible

(B) no mutations necessary

(D) the presence of genetic mutations beginning the development of a neoplasm

14. Which of the following microbe is associated with malignant liver tumors?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Epstein-Barr virus

(D) Echinococcus granulosus

15. Which of the following is a complication of liver cirrhosis as result of increase fluid in interstitium?

(A) ascites

(B) tumour

(D) encephalitis

16. Which of the following is described as an increase of blood volume in particular tissue?

(A) necrosis

(B) hyperemia

(D) chronic inflammation

17. Which of the following can cause embolism?

(A) Increase fluid in interstitium.

(B) Intravital intravascular blood clotting.

(D) Detached intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass carried by blood to distant site from point of origin.

18. Which of the following is a factor can that cause thrombosis?

(A) hypercoagulability

(B) lymphatic drainage

(D) plasma colloid osmotic pressure

19. Which of the following disease is caused from hyperactivity of the adrenal glands and the over secretion of the Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) hormone?

(A) Cretinism

(B) Acromegaly

(D) Cushing’s syndrome

20. Which of the following hormone can cause hypoglycemia?

(A) insulin

(B) prolactin

(D) calcitonin

21. Which of the following type of hypersensitivity is predominantly that can cause major drawback to graft transplantation?

(A) type I hypersensitivity

(B) type II hypersensitivity

(D) type IV hypersensitivity

22. Which of the following disease that can affect T-cell population and macrophage function?

(A) malaria

(B) acne vulgaris

(D) lymphogranuloma venereum

23. Which of the following disease is caused by immunodeficiency disorders?

(A) aspergillosis

(B) vulvovaginitis

(D) agammaglobulinemia

24. What is the disorder that cause cystic fibrosis?

(A) genetic disorders*

(B) alimentary disorders

(D) immunodeficiency disorders

25. Which of the following disease is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21?

(A) hemophilia

(B) cystic fibrosis

(D) sickle- cell disease

26. Which of the following is a TRUE about sickle-cell disease?

(A) Have an extra copy of chromosome 10.

(B) Affects hemoglobin, protein in blood that carries oxygen.

(D) Do not produce one of the proteins needed for normal blood clotting.

27. Which of the following is caused by bone marrow does not produce enough red blood cell?

(A) Aplastic anemia

(B) Pernicious anemia

(D) Hemorrhagic anemia

28. Which of the following microbe can cause infectious mononucleosis?

(A) Hepatitis B virus

(B) Candida albicans

(D) Streptococcus pyogenes

29. An infection enters the blood stream can cause

(A) leukemia

(B) pityriasis

(D) thrombocytopenia

30. Which of the following substances can cause jaundice?

(A) mucus

(B) bilirubin

(D) hemoglobin

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Determine FOUR (4) characteristic signs of inflammation. (4 Marks)

b. Explain the importance of pathology. (6 Marks)

2. a. Determine causes of genetic disorders. (4 Marks)

b. Determine the differences between benign and malignant tumour. (6 Marks)

3. a. Determine the differences between diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus. (4 Marks)

b. Describe briefly about leukemia. (6 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Describe FOUR (4) types of cellular adaptation to physiologic and pathologic conditions. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss pathology of shock. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Describe about the concept of hypersensitivity disorders. (20 Marks)

August 2016

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. Which of the following is NOT considered a symptom of a disease?

(A) fatigue

(B) malaise

(D) headache

2. The study of the causes, distribution and control of a disease in a certain population is known as

(A) prognosis

(B) incidence

(D) epidemiology*

3. Which of these definitions are CORRECT?

(A) pathogenesis – the cause of a disease

(B) diagnosis – the likely outcome of a disease

(D) complications – the medication prescribed for the disease

4. The first intravascular event in the mobilization of leukocytes at the site of acute inflammation is

(A) emigration*

(B) margination

(D) phagocytosis

5. Which is the definition of hypertrophy?

(A) increase in the size of cells*

(B) increase in the number of cells

(D) an increase in both the size and number of cells

6. Replacement of one differentiated cell type by another mature cell is known as

(A) atrophy

(B) dysplasia

(D) hyperplasia

7. Determine the immediate and early cellular response when a sharp metal is pierced through the epithelium of a man.

(A) lymphocytes present

(B) plasma cells accumulate

(D) neutrophils squeezes out from the vessels to site of injury

8. Which definition is CORRECT?

(A) Anaplasia is an almost complete lack of differentiation.

(B) Carcinoma in-situ is a carcinoma with stromal invasion.

(D) Metaplasia is the disordered development of cells with loss of organization.

9. Which of the following is TRUE of a thrombus?

(A) Mural thrombi are present on heart valves.

(B) Red thrombus is found in fast moving blood.

(D) Pale thrombus is commonly seen in venous system.

10. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE regarding embolism?

(A) It may cause sudden death.

(B) The commonest type is thromboembolism.

(D) Venous thrombosis commonly causes systemic embolism.

11. Which of the below is NOT the correctly paired types of emboli and their source?

(A) fat embolism – fracture of long bones

(B) thromboembolism – superficial leg veins

(D) air embolism – inadequate decompression in deep sea divers

12. Which of the following feature is a characteristic of chronic inflammation?

(A) vasodilation

(B) tissue destruction

(D) neutrophilic infiltration

13. What is the most important feature differentiating malignant from benign tumour?

(A) metastasis

(B) abnormal mitosis

(D) poor resemblance to normal tissue

14. If a blood clot were to “embolize”, this means it has

(A) hardened

(B) decreased in size

(D) attached itself to another clot

15. Hard yellow plaque of lipid which is found in inner most layer of arteries is called

(A) atheroma

(B) carcinoma

(D) thromboemboli

16. Gastric ulcers are unlikely to be caused by

(A) stress

(B) Zika virus

(D) excessive use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

17. The technical name for heart attack is

(A) angina pectoris

(B) cardiac infusion

(D) myocardial insufficiency

18. Which of these veins carry oxygenated blood?

(A) renal vein

(B) pulmonary veins*

(D) superior vena cava

19. Which organism would have MOST likely caused the sudden development of numerous painful vesicles on the genital area of a 21-year-old sexually active female?

(A) Hepatitis virus

(B) Herpes simplex virus

(D) Human immunodeficiency virus

20. Which neoplasm of the skin rapidly metastasizes?

(A) malignant melanoma

(B) squamous cell carcinoma

(D) pigmented basal cell carcinoma

21. Permanent enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles with destruction of alveolar walls is associated with

(A) asthma

(B) bronchitis

(D) bronchopulmonary dysplasia

22. What is the most common organism that causes chronic pyelonepritis?

(A) Escherichia coli

(B) Klebsiella pneumonia

(D) Streptococcus pyogenes

23.

The lesion seen in the ileum in Figure 1 represents

(A) gastritis

(B) peptic ulcer disease

(D) inflammatory bowel disease

24. Which of the following tumours is associated with hormone dependence?

(A) carcinoma of the lung

(B) carcinoma of the breast

(D) carcinoma of the stomach

25. The two types of condition with regards to kidney stones are known as

(A) cholelithiasis and urolithiasis

(B) urolithiasis and nephrolithiasis

(D) pancreatolithiasis and urolithiasis

26. Which of the following is categorized under the non-modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?

(A) age

(B) diabetes

(D) hypertension

27. As we grow older, which of the following will increase with regards to our gastrointestinal tract system?

(A) risk of drug toxicity

(B) absorption of nutrients

(D) ability to chew and taste sensation

28. The stages of a tumour refer to which of the following features?

I. the size of tumour

II. the presence of distant metastasis

III. the number of mitosis (mitosis count)

III. the presence of lymph node involvement

(A) I, II and III only

(B) I, II and IV only

(D) All of the above

29. A man survived without undergoing any treatment for atherosclerosis, the possible complications that he could face include

I. aneurysm

II. hemorrhage

III. cholesterol emboli

IV. thrombus formation

(A) I, II and III only

(B) I, II and IV only

(D) All of the above

30. Which of the following changes indicate irreversible injury?

I. nuclear karyorrhexis

II. hydropic degeneration

III. release of cellular enzymes

IV. dense bodies within mitochondria

A. I, II and III only

B. I, II and IV only

C. I, III and IV only

D. All of the above

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. a. Define disease. (2 Marks)

b. Define congenital and acquired disorders. (2 Marks)

c. Give ONE (1) example for each congenital and acquired disorders respectively. (2 Marks)

d. State the differences between signs and symptoms. (4 Marks)

2. a. Define the term “carcinoma in-situ”. (3 Marks)

b. Justify the reason of promise of cure for carcinoma in-situ. (2 Marks)

3. a. Predict THREE (3) routes of how the neoplastic cells could travel. (3 Marks)

b. What would it mean if the doctor says that a patient has a bad prognosis? (2 Marks)

4. a. Compare the differences between apoptosis and necrosis. (6 Marks)

b. Determine the THREE (3) different stages of nuclear changes found in necrosis. (3 Marks)

c. Give an example of apoptosis involved in an important physiological process. (1 Mark)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question 1

Explain the risk factors for the development of breast cancer. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Describe the THREE (3) malignancy conditions of the integumentary system and include in your answers the ABCDs for the skin cancer which has the worst prognosis. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Explain in detail at least SIX (6) causes of cystitis. (20 Marks)

January 2016

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTION

Figure 1

“forecast as to the probable result of an attack of disease and the prospect

of recovery.”

1. What is the term described in Figure 1?

(A) etiology

(B) diagnosis

(D) morphology

2. Hypertrophy of muscles in athletes is an example of

(A) necrosis

(B) apoptosis

(D) adaptive response*

3. When an injury is severe enough and cause cell death this is known as

(A) hypoxia

(B) necrosis

(D) hypoxemia

4. In respiratory tract of a smoker, the replacement of ciliated columnar epithelium with stratified squamous epithelium is an example of

(A) dysplasia

(B) anaplasia

(D) hyperplasia

5. The incidence, prevalence and population distribution of a disease is

(A) prognosis

(B) pathology

(D) epidemiology

10. In the brain, ischemic injury produces which type of necrosis?

(A) fat

(B) caseous

(D) liquefactive

11. The MOST common cause of death in intensive care units is

(A) septic shock

(B) neurogenic shock

(D) hypovolemic shock

12. Vascular proliferation, fibrosis and predominance of lymphocytes and macrophages

are all considered to be

(A) necrosis

(B) apoptosis

(D) chronic inflammation

13. The MOST abundant white blood cell in acute inflammation is

(A) monocyte

(B) neutrophils

(D) lymphocytes

14. The MOST common mode of transmission for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in Malaysia is

(A) sexual contact

(B) parenteral exposure

(D) transplacental transmission

15. What type of hyperbilirubinemia is hemolytic jaundice?

(A) conjugated

(B) hydrophilic

(D) unconjugated

16. Normal liver cells are damaged and are then replaced by scar tissue is

(A) cirrhosis

(B) jaundice

(D) cholangiocarcinomas

17. Cell mass of islet is reduced in which type of diabetes?

(A) type 1 diabetes

(B) type 2 diabetes

(D) gestational diabetes

Figure 6

“Decrease or damage to bone marrow stem cells and replacement of bone marrow with fat”

18. Which of the following BEST describes Figure 6?

(A) thalassemia

(B) aplastic anemia

(D) iron deficiency anemia

19. Vomiting up blood is known as

(A) hematuria

(B) hematoma

(D) hematemesis

20. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

I. asthma

II. hay fever

III. Graves disease

IV. diabetes mellitus type 1

(A) I, II

(B) I, III

(D) II, III, IV

21. Which of the following is a common feature of leukemia?

(A) anemia

(B) enlarged spleen

(D) excess white blood cells in the bone marrow*

22. Nephrotic syndrome is usually caused by

(A) bacterial infection that spread up the urinary tract

(B) damage to clusters of tiny blood vessels in kidney

(D) crystal aggregation formed in kidney from minerals in urine

23. Changes of blood from liquid to a solid state is associated with

(A) shock

(B) edema

(D) thrombosis

24. Production of antinuclear antibodies is associated with

(A) thyroiditis

(B) scleroderma

(D) systemic lupus erythematosus

25. Elephantiasis is the consequence of

(A) cardiac failure

(B) increase osmotic pressure

(D) decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

26. Following conditions may cause esophagitis, EXCEPT

(A) uremia

(B) hemorrhage into mucosa

(D) ingestion of corrosive or irritant substances

27. What condition may occur if the integrity of the normal blood-brain barrier is disrupted?

(A) meningitis

(B) hydrocephalus

(D) vasogenic edema

28. Which stage of breast cancer would a patient fall in if the results obtained were T3, N2 and M1?

(A) Grade I

(B) Grade II

(D) Grade IV

Figure 7

I. no pseudopolyps

II. presence of granulomas

III. limited to mucosa and sub-mucosa

IV. commonly located at terminal ileum

29. Which statements in Figure 7 fulfill the characteristic of Crohn’s disease?

(A) I, II, III

(B) I, II, IV

(D) I, II, III, IV

Figure 8

• not relieve by nitroglycerine

• pain last from 20 minutes to several hours

• chest pain or discomfort radiate to neck, jaw and left arm

30. The signs and symptoms listed in Figure 8 is pertaining to

(A) pericarditis

(B) angina pectoris

(D) calcific aortic stenosis

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define (8 Marks)

i. meningitis

ii. hydrocephalus

iii. cerebral edema

iv. myelomeningocele

b. Name any TWO (2) major types of meningitis. (2 Marks)

2. a. What is cholelithiasis? (2 Marks)

b. Write short notes on pathophysiology of cholelithiasis. (6 Marks)

3. a. Define cirrhosis. (2 Marks)

b. Provide any THREE (3) characteristics of cirrhosis. (3 Marks)

4. a. State any TWO (2) upper respiratory tract intections. (2 Marks)

b. Name TWO (2) types of bacterial pneumonia. (2 Marks)

c. Identify THREE (3) causative factors of pneumonia. (3 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Discuss the pathogenic mechanisms of each type of hypersensitivity reactions with examples. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Distinguish the features of stable and unstable angina pectoris, in terms of etiology and clinical presentation. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Explain gastric ulceration. (20 Marks)

August 2015

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTION

1. “The process of identifying a disease based on the patient’s symptoms, the doctor’s finding and laboratory test” refers to

(A) etiology

(B) diagnosis

(D) clinical significance

2. Apoptosis can be described as

(A) degradation of cells by their own enzymes

(B) death of bone tissue due to lack of blood supply

(D) passive process resulting from impaired outflow of blood

3. Which type of necrosis preserved the outline of the cell?

(A) fat

(B) caseous

(D) liquefactive

4. What is the term for cell death in a cell that has lost its blood supply?

(A) hypoxia

(B) ischemia

(D) apoptosis

5. What is the term described in Figure 1?

Figure 1

“Circulatory collapse and subsequent decreased tissue perfusion”

(A) shock

(B) edema

(D) thrombosis

8. Hepatitis B virus is present in the etiology of which illness?

(A) cirrhosis

(B) Parkinson’s

(D) cerebral haemorrhage

9. The sickle cell gene may confer protection against

(A) cancer

(B) cholera

(D) Parkinson’s disease

10. Accumulation of bilirubin in the blood can be evidenced by symptoms of

(A) jaundice

(B) bleeding

(D) splenomegaly

11. Chronic peptic ulcer disease is most likely to occur in the

(A) jejunum

(B) stomach

(D) duodenum

12. All of the following are apoptosis, EXCEPT

(A) the nucleus is fragmented

(B) the cell membrane is intact

(D) be physiological or pathological

13. Traveler’s diarrhea is caused by

(A) poison

(B) infection

(D) salts in water

14. In Barrett’s esophagus, the changes in the epithelial mucosa from one type of cell to

another is an example of

(A) dysplasia

(B) anaplasia

(D) hyperplasia

15. Factors common to both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus include all of the

following EXCEPT

(A) an autoimmune etiology

(B) elevated blood glucose levels

(D) deficiency of insulin or failure of insulin activity

16. Absolute lack of insulin caused by destruction or reduction of the beta cells in

pancreatic islets of Langerhans is

(A) diabetes insipidus

(B) gestational diabetes

(D) type 2 diabetes mellitus

17. Which of the following is more likely to be associated with ulcerative colitis than

Crohn’s disease?

(A) peritonitis

(B) skip lesions

(D) carcinoma of colon

18. Which of the following kidney diseases is associated with a positive urine culture

for bacteria?

(A) polycystic kidney

(B) acute pyelonephritis

(D) post streptococcal glomerulonephritis19. A common degenerative disease usually of older individuals characterized by

neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques is

(A) Tay Sach’s disease

(B) Parkinson’s disease

(D) Huntington’s disease

20. Which of the following is NOT a finding the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of bacteria

meningitis

(A) decreased glucose

(B) increased red cell count

(D) increased protein concentration

21. Which of the following definitions is CORRECT?

(A) Anaplasia is an almost complete lack of differentiation.

(B) Hypertrophy is increase in cell size due to increase of cell substance.

(D) Metaplasia is the change of an adult cell type replaced by another adult cell

type.

22. Bridging fibrous septa occurs in cirrhosis patient when

(A) there is minimal tissue damage

(B) a marked neutrophilic reaction has taken place

(D) there is forming of delicate bands or broad scars around multiple adjacent

lobules

23. Necrosis of heart muscles resulting from ischemia is

(A) pericarditis

(B) stable angina

(D) myocardial infarction

24. Increased volume of cerebrospinal fluid within the skull accompanied by dilatation

of ventricles is the term used for

(A) hydrocephalus

(B) cytotoxic edema

(D) myelomeningocele

25. What organ does Addison’s disease affect?

(A) thyroid

(B) adrenal

(D) hypophysis

26. Important morphology shown by Barrett’s esophagus is

(A) hyperemia

(B) basal zone hyperplasia

(D) metaplastic columnar epithelium containing goblet cells

27. Cholelithiasis can be described as

(A) presence of one or more calculi in gallbladder

(B) diffuse process characterized by fibrosis in liver

(D) adenocarcinomas with biliary differentiation arising from cholangiocytes

28. Caseous necrosis is a

(A) prominent enzymatic digestion of dead cells

(B) coagulation and fragmentation of dead tissue

(D) destruction of adipose tissue due to release of pancreatic enzymes into adipose

tissue

29. Which will show sign and symptoms listed in Figure 4?

Figure 4

• acholic feces

• observation of jaundice

• increased levels of conjugated serum bilirubin

(A) cirrhosis of the liver

(B) infectious hepatitis B infection

(D) increased hemolysis of red blood cells in a hemolytic anemia

30. Which statements in Figure 5 fulfill the characteristic of acute pyelonephritis?

Figure 5

I. suppurative necrosis

II. glomeruli shown fibrosis and ischemia

III. yellowish and raised abcesses on renal surface

IV. large masses of intratubular neutrophils within nephrons

(A) I, II, III

(B) I, II, IV

(D) I, II, III, IV

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define (8 Marks)

i. Edema

ii. Embolism

iii. Thrombosis

iv. Hemorrhage

b. Enumerate any TWO (2) common types of shock. (2 Marks)

2. a. What is reflux esophagitis? (2 Marks)

b. State THREE (3) common causes of reflux esophagitis. (3 Marks)

3. a. Explain peptic ulcers. (2 Marks)

b. Write short notes on pathogenesis of peptic ulcers. (5 Marks)

4. a. List any TWO (2) autoimmune diseases other than systemic lupus erythematosis. (2 Marks)

b. Briefly describe systemic lupus erythematosus. (3 Marks)

c. Identify THREE (3) symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosis. (3 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Describe the pathophysiology and risk factors of cholelithiasis. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Compare and contrast etiology of rhinitis and sinusitis. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Explain acute pyelonephritis. (20 Marks)

January 2015

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTION

1. “The study of mechanism and the characteristics of principle types of disease

process” refers to

(A) general pathology

(B) clinical pathology

(D) experimental pathology

2. Brown atrophy occurs due to accumulation of

(A) fluid

(B) lipofuscin*

(D) hemosiderin

3. Hyperemia can be describe as

(A) vasoconstriction of blood vascular

(B) an active process causing increase in organ blood flow

(D) extravasation of blood due to rupture of blood vessels in an organ

4. The most recruited leukocytes in acute inflammation is

(A) basophils

(B) neutrophils

(D) lymphocytes

5. If a tissue is persistently damage, it will be replaced by

(A) fibrous tissue

(B) adipose tissue

(D) connective tissue

6. In acute inflammation, there will be

(A) increased in blood flow

(B) reduced vascular permeability

(D) blockage of blood circulation at injured site

7. Which of the following definition is FALSE about types of hemorrhage?

(A) Hemoptysis is coughing up of blood.

(B) Hematemesis is vomiting up of blood.

(D) Ecchymoses is hemorrhage occurring in body cavities.

8. Which is the most common type of solid embolus?

(A) nitrogen

(B) blood clot

(D) radiographic contrast material

9. Disorder of which organs causes Addisons disease?

(A) adrenal

(B) thyroid

(D) hypohysis

10. The most common type of shock is

(A) metabolic shock

(B) respiratory shock

(D) hemorrhagic shock

11. Grading of cancer refers to the following statements, EXCEPT

(A) size of tumor

(B) metastases to distant organs

(D) presence of capsular invasion by tumor cells

12. Which of the following organism causes Tuberculosis?

(A) Mycobacterium bovis

(B) Mycobacterium leprae

(D) Mycobacterium marinum

13. A strong association has been reported between upper gastrointestinal disease and the

presence of

(A) Salmonella typhi

(B) Helicobacter pylori

(D) Campylobacter jejuni

14. Which of the following describes cellular adaptation?

(A) apoptotic cell death

(B) release of cytokines

(D) cellular atrophy as a result of decreased workload

15. Which stage of breast cancer would a patient fall in if the results obtained were T1, N0

and M0?

(A) Stage I

(B) Stage II

(D) Stage IV

16. Which of the following statement is TRUE on apoptosis?

(A) occurs in-group of cells

(B) only a pathological process

(D) results in cell shrinkage and fragmentation

17. Which of the following is does NOT contribute to edema?

(A) Increased vascular permeability.

(B) Decreased vascular osmotic pressure.

(D) Decreased fluid leakage out of the capillary.

18. The most important complication of infection of the urinary bladder (cystitis) is

(A) frequency of urination

(B) infection of the kidney

(D) discomfort to the patient

19. Below are areas most frequently damaged due to hypertension, EXCEPT

(A) liver

(B) brain

(D) kidneys

20. New blood vessel formation is known as

(A) angiogenesis

(B) cardiogenesis

(D) epitheliogenesis

21. Which of the following definitions is CORRECT?

(A) Anaplasia is an almost complete lack of differentiation.

(B) Atrophy is increase in cell size due to increase of cell substance.

(D) Dysplasia is the disordered development of cells with loss of organization.

22. Chronic inflammation occurs when

(A) the damaging agent persists

(B) there is marked tissue damage

(D) a marked neutrophilic reaction has taken place

23. Beneficial effects of acute inflammation is

(A) swelling of tissue

(B) digestion of normal tissues

(D) inappropriate inflammatory response

24. Which cancer has the highest mortality rate in females?

(A) ovary

(B) breast

(D) lung and bronchus

25. Which type of hypersensitivity does T cells mediate?

(A) Type 1

(B) Type 2

(D) Type 4

26. Important symptom shown by nephrotic syndrome is

(A) proteinuria

(B) malabsorption

(D) reduced osmotic pressure

27. Pitting edema can be described as

(A) dermis edema

(B) epidermis edema

(D) intramuscular edema

28. Cytotoxic edema is a/an

(A) result of disruption of integrity blood-brain barrier

(B) increase in intracellular fluid due to cellular injury

(D) increase of cerebrospinal fluid due to loss of neural tissue

29. Which will shos signs and symptoms listed in Figure 1?

Figure 1

• Crystal aggregation formed in kidneys

• blockage of ureter

• Severe pain known as renal colic

(A) renal calculi

(B) Wilms tumors

(D) medullary cystic disease

30. Which statements in Figure 2 are the cellular responses in acute inflammation?

Figure 2

I. phagocytosis

II. margination of leukocytes

III. chemo attraction towards the agents

IV. adhesion of leukocytes at endothelium

(A) I, II, III

(B) I, II, IV

(D) I, II, III, IV

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define the following terms: (8 Marks)

i. Hypertension

ii. Atherosclerosis

iii. Angina pectoris

iv. Myocardial infarction

b. Briefly state the common types of angina pectoris. (2 Marks)

2. a. What is pneumonia? (2 Marks)

b. Give TWO (2) symptoms of pneumonia. (2 Marks)

c. State TWO (2) types of common bacterial pneumonia. (2 Marks)

d. Write a short note on any TWO (2) stages of pneumonia. (4 Marks)

3. a. List TWO (2) prevention of Hepatitis B virus infection. (2 Marks)

b. Identify Hepatitis B virus route of transmission. (3 Marks)

c. State FIVE (5) complications of Hepatitis B virus infection. (5 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Distinguish the features of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus, in terms of etiology, pathogenesis including clinical and morphologic manifestations. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Compare between acute gastritis and chronic gastritis. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Explain about the hydrocephalus. (20 Marks)

August 2014

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

CHOOSE ONE BEST STATEMENT TO ANSWER THE QUESTION

1. What is “the observation of tissue with naked eye to study disease”?

(A) gross pathology

(B) clinical pathology

(D) experimental pathology

2. When an injury is severe enough and causes cell death this is known as

(A) necrosis

(B) adaption

(D) irreversible

3. The structural and functional features of a disease are

(A) signs and symptoms

(B) prognosis and etiology

(D) pathological and clinical manifestations

4. Etiological agents include

(A) mechanical trauma

(B) genetic abnormalities

(D) All of the above

5. What is “the formation of a clot inside blood vessel, obstructing the flow of blood

through the circulatory system?

(A) ischemia

(B) infarction

(D) thrombosis

6. The incidence, prevalence and population distribution of a disease is

(A) prognosis

(B) pathology

(D) epidemiology

7. New blood vessel formation is known as

(A) angiogenesis

(B) cardiogenesis

(D) epitheliogenesis

8. What organ and tissue does Addisons disease affect?

(A) adrenal

(B) thyroid

(D) hypohysis

9. Adenocarcinoma of the colon spreads via blood in the portal venous system to the

(A) liver

(B) brain

(D) vertebral column

10. The most common cause of stroke due to hemorrhage into the brain is

(A) trauma

(B) leukemia

(D) congenital aneurysm

11. The accumulation of bilirubin in the blood can be evidenced by symptoms of

(A) jaundice

(B) bleeding

(D) intravascular coagulation

12. Pancreatic cancer usually develops in the

(A) tail of the pancreas

(B) head of the pancreas

(D) None of the above

13. What are the main pathological changes in bronchiectasis?

(A) excessive mucus

(B) smooth mucle hyperplasia

(D) protease-antiprotease imbalance

14. Which of the following gangrene is the result of infection by Clostridium perfringens?

(A) dry

(B) gas

(D) synergistic

15. The most important complication of infection of the urinary bladder (cystitis) is

(A) frequency of urination

(B) infection of the kidney

(D) discomfort to the patient

16. Thrombocytopenia is a/an

(A) disorder of decreased platelets

(B) reduction in the number of red blood cells

(D) increase production in the total number of white blood cells

17. Nephrotic syndrome is a/an

(A) immune-related disorder

(B) developmental disease of the kidney

(D) disease presenting with massive proteinuria, edema and hypoalbuminemia

18. A strong association has been reported between upper gastrointestinal disease and the

presence of

(A) Salmonella typhi

(B) Helicobacter pylori

(D) Campylobacter jejuni

19. A common degenerative disease usually of older individuals characterized by

neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques is

(A) Alzheimer’s disease

(B) Guillain-barre syndrome

(D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

20. What is “chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes recurrent episodes

of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and cough with excess mucus”?

(A) asthma

(B) pneumonia

(D) bullous emphysema

21. Which of the following is more likely to be associated with Crohn’s disease than

with ulcerative colitis?

(A) Inflammation involves only a superficial ulceration of the mucosa.

(B) Continuous mucosal disease diffusely distributed in the colon only.

(D) Inflammation involves full thickness of the bowel wall (in all layers) appears as

a patchy lesion.

22. Which of the following would be least likely in a jaundiced patient with obstruction

to bile outflow from the liver

(A) itching skin

(B) clay colored feces

(D) dark colored urine due to bilirubin (conjugated) excretion

23. Increased levels of conjugated serum bilirubin, observation of jaundice and acholic

feces are consistent with

(A) cirrhosis of the liver

(B) infectious hepatitis B infection

(D) increased hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic anemia

24. Below are areas most frequently damaged due to hypertension, EXCEPT

(A) liver

(B) brain

(D) kidneys

25. The following are conditions associated with Type III immune response, EXCEPT

(A) asthma

(B) arthritis

(D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

26. Factors common to both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus include all of the

following EXCEPT

(A) an autoimmune etiology

(B) elevated blood glucose levels

(D) deficiency of insulin due to failure of insulin activity

27. Which of the following statement is the basic cause of Acute Respiratory Distress

Syndrome (ARDS)?

(A) Air leaks into the pleural cavity.

(B) Obstruction of bronchus by a mucous of mucopurulent plug.

blood from pulmonary arteries into veins.

(D) Diffuse alveolar capillary and epithelial damage, resulting imbalance pro-

inflammatory and anti-inflammatory mediators.

28. Unstable angina are not

(A) associated with heart attack

(B) occur when increased physical activity

(D) occur by formation of blood clot at site of ruptured plaque in coronary artery

29. Which disease fulfill the criteria in Figure 1?

Figure 1

• Inflammatory disorder of the thyroid

• Enlarged thyroid (goiter)

• Hypothyroidism – fatigue, muscle weakness and weigh gain

(A) cretinism

(B) myxedema

(D) hashimoto thyroiditis

30. Which statement/s in Figure 2 fulfill the signs of ischemic heart disease?

Figure 2

I. Insufficient oxygen

II. Insufficient nutrients

III. Build up of metabolic waste

(A) I

(B) I, II

(D) I, II, III

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. a. Define cirrhosis. (2 Marks)

b. What is the etiology of cirrhosis? (2 Marks)

c. Describe the pathogenesis of cirrhosis. (3 Marks)

d. Recognize the morphologic patterns of cirrhosis (gross and microscopic). (3 Marks)

2. a. What is acute pyelonephritis? (2 Marks)

b. Give FOUR (4) morphology of acute pyelonephritis. (4 Marks)

c. List FOUR (4) clinical courses of acute pyelonephritis. (4 Marks)

3. a. What is meningitis? (3 Marks)

b. State THREE (3) major types of meningitis. (3 Marks)

c. List FOUR (4) common bacteria that cause meningitis. (4 Marks)

SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY

Question 1

Discuss acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), in terms of characteristics of the etiology agent, transmission, epidemiology, opportunistic infections, clinical course, laboratory finding and neoplastic complications of AIDS. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Compare lower respiratory infections due to pneumonia and tuberculosis. Your answers must include characteristics of the etiologic agent, transmission and clinical features. (20 Marks)

Question 3

In your own words, explain the pathophysiology, etiology, effects, consequence, diagnosis and treatment of hypertension. (20 Marks)

January 2014

SECTION A : OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. Which of the following is NOT considered a symptom of a disease?

(A) fatigue

(B) malaise

(D) headache

2. The study of the causes, distribution and control of a disease in a certain

population is known as

(A) prognosis

(B) incidence

(D) epidemiology

3. Which of the following BEST describes granulation tissue?

(A) collagen and giant cells

(B) fibroblasts and macrophages

(D) capillary buds and lymphocytes

4. The first intravascular event in the mobilization of leukocytes at the site of acute

inflammation is

(A) Emigration

(B) margination

(D) phagocytosis

5. During pregnancy there is an increase in the uterine smooth muscle cells of the

myometrium. This is known as

(A) pathologic metaplasia

(B) physiologic metaplasia

(D) physiologic hyperplasia

6. Replacement of one differentiated cell type by another mature cell is known as

(A) atrophy

(B) dysplasia

(D) hyperplasia

7. A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman has been feeling excessively tired for about

2 months. An x-ray study reveals a mass lesion in the right colon. A biopsy of this

area demonstrates malignant gland-forming epithelial cells.

What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

(A) fibrosarcoma

(B) adenocarcinoma

(D) transitional cell carcinoma

8. A 45-year-old male has had a slowly growing reddish nodule on his arm for about

2 years. The surgeon removed it and microscopically the nodule is composed of

benign varying sized blood vessels.

What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

(A) adenoma

(B) lymphoma

(D) adenocarcinoma

9. Thrombi is NOT likely to form with

(A) venous stasis

(B) decreased clotting factor

(D) deficiency of antithrombin III (AT III)

10. A 26-year-old male fractures his pelvis and femur in a motor vehicle accident. On

the third day he dies after developing a cerebral dysfunction. At autopsy, fat

globules are found scattered in the cerebral cortex, kidney and lung.

What embolism is MOST LIKELY involved?

(A) fat

(B) gas

(D) amniotic fluid

11. Which of the following is FALSE of Type I diabetes mellitus?

(A) has a genetic predisposition

(B) is an autoimmune-induced disorder

(D) is a disease of middle-aged or elderly onset

12. Which of the following is TRUE of Type II diabetes mellitus?

(A) has acute onset

(B) has low or absent plasma insulin levels

(D) is a disease of childhood or adolescent onset

13. Rheumatoid arthritis

(A) is a disease of bone deformity

(B) is not an autoimmune disorder

(D) is characterized by circulating levels of autoantibody rheumatoid factor

14. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-1

(A) is a DNA virus

(B) binds to CD8 cytotoxic T cells

(D) requires reverse transcriptase to replicate

15. The following are the types of mutation happen to DNA sequence EXCEPT

(A) methylation

(B) translocation

(D) copy number variant

16. Which is the following is TRUE regarding autosomal recessive inheritance

disease?

(A) It has no carrier

(B) The fourth child will get the disease

(D) Heterozygous parent has 75% chances to have normal child

17. Which is a disorder of pluripotent stem cells that leads to bone marrow failure?

(A) aplastic anemia

(B) hemolytic anemia

(D) myelophthisic anemia

18. Anemia caused by defective DNA synthesis secondary to B12/folic acid

deficiency is called

(A) aplastic anemia

(B) iron deficiency anemia

(D) myelophthisic anemia

19. A clot primarily involving the lower extremities and may be caused by trauma,

bacterial infection, prolonged bed rest, and oral contraceptives is related to

(A) embolus

(B) varicose veins

(D) deep venous thrombosis

20. An accumulation of fluid within the pericardial sac is known as

(A) varicose veins

(B) pulmonary edema

(D) deep venous thrombosis

21. Parietal pleura sensitive to pain is known as

(A) cough

(B) dyspnea

(D) sputum Production

22. Coughing up blood is known as

(A) dyspnea

(B) cyanosis

(D) sputum Production

23. Which of the following is MOST strongly associated with h.pylori infection?

(A) duodenal ulcer

(B) gastric ulcer (fundic)

(D) oesophageal ulcer

24. Projectile vomiting in newborns is suggestive of

(A) pyloric stenosis

(B) oesophageal atresia

(B) diaphragmatic hernia

25. Varicose veins of the legs are associated with which of these:

(A) pregnancy

(B) cigarette smoking

(D) excessive walking

26. With respect to liver disease, oedema is caused by

(A) low ALT levels

(B) high AST levels

(D) low blood albumin levels

27. Urinary calculi are most commonly found in which part of the urinary tract?

(A) renal pelvis

(B) ureterovesical junction

(D) half way between renal pelvis and bladder

28. The majority of patients with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder have

(A) oligouria

(B) abdominal cramps

(D) painless haematuria

29. Anaemia in chronic renal failure is due to:

(A) reduced secretion of renin

(B) increased excretion of calcium

(D) reduced secretion of erythropoietin

30. An area of the brain rich in cell bodies is likely to be described as

(A) sinus

(B) extra-dural

(D) white matter

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. a) Define disease. (1 Mark)

b) Define congenital and acquired disorders. (2 Marks)

c) Give ONE (1) example of the cause for congenital and acquired disorders respectively. (2 Marks)

2. a) Explain the term “carcinoma in-situ”. (2 Marks)

b) Justify the reason of promise of cure for carcinoma in-situ. (1 Mark)

c) George had lung cancer three years back but even though with surgery and chemotherapy, he obtained stomach cancer. Predict TWO (2) routes of how the neoplastic cells could travel. (2 Marks)

3. a) What is pneumonia? (2 Marks)

b) What are the FOUR (4) stages of lobar pneumonia. (4 Marks)

c) What are the general clinical signs and symptoms of pneumonia? (2 Marks)

d) What are the potential complications of bacterial pneumonia? (2 Marks)

4. a) Define liver cirrhosis. (2 Marks)

b) Describe the histologic features of liver cirrhosis. (4 Marks)

c) List TWO (2) common causes of liver cirrhosis. (2 Marks)

d) What are the complications of liver cirrhosis? (2 Marks)

SECTION C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question 1

Define thrombus, explain the factors predisposing to thrombosis and describe the various thrombus morphology. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss meningitis. (20 Marks)

August 2013

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. What is a medical term denoting the doctor’s prediction of how a patient’s disease

will progress and whether there is a chance of recovery?

(A) Sign

(B) Lesion

(D) Prognosis

2. Which of the following accurately defines cellular adaptation?

(A) Maintaining a steady state

(B) Internally programmed cell death

(D) Accumulation of oxygen derived free radicals

3. Which of the following would be an example of physiologic hyperplasia?

(A) Enlargement of the uterus in a pregnant female

(B) Decreased mass of the biceps brachii due to inactivity

(D) Enlargement of the rectus abdominis after fitness training

4. Which of the following cellular changes would you detect on a light microscope as

a response to cellular injury?

(A) Cellular swelling or fatty change

(B) Bleb formation on the plasma membrane

(D) Polyribosome detachment from the endoplasmic reticulum

5. A 4 year girl has a broken arm. After her cast is removed 6 weeks later, her

healing arm is markedly smaller than her normal arm. The mechanism of atrophy

in this case is

(A) Disuse atrophy

(B) Pressure atrophy

(D) Loss of endocrine stimulation

6. What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

I. Rubor

II. Calor

III. Dolor

IV. Tumor

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(D) I, II, III and IV

7. Which of the following cells participate in nonspecific defense responses when

your body is invaded by microbes?

I. Neutrophils

II. Macrophages

III. Natural killer cells

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(D) I, II and III

8. Which statement about the extent of cellular injury is TRUE?

(A) Severe injury always causes irreversible cellular injury.

(B) Nutritional status can have a profound effect on the extent of cell

injury.

from the extent of injury.

(D) Two individuals exposed to the identical stimulus always have the

same degree of cellular injury.

9. Which of the following terms describes cellular death caused by severe cell

swelling and the breakdown of organelles?

(A) Necrosis

(B) Gangrene

(D) Adaptation

10. Caseous necrosis occurs under which of the following conditions?

(A) Ischemic injury to neurons

(B) Tuberculosis pulmonary infection

(D) Hypoxic injury to the heart, kidneys, and adrenal glands

11. What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response?

(A) It inhibits the complement system

(B) It stimulates proliferation of fibrocytes

(D) It directly stimulates mast cell degranulation

12. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

(A) Obesity

(B) Cigarette smoking

(D) Elevated blood cholesterol

13. Which of the following procedures involves a segment of a leg vein being used to

provide an alternate pathway for blood flow past a point of obstruction between

the aorta and a coronary artery?

(A) Angioplasty

(B) Heart transplant

(D) Coronary angiography

14. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of hyperthyroidism.

When taking a history which information would be most significant?

(A) Edema, intolerance to cold, lethargy

(B) Peri-orbital edema, lethargy mask like face

(D) Weight loss, intolerance to cold, muscle wasting

15. What are the most common symptoms resulting from an excess epinephrine and

norepineprine?

I. Hypertension

II. Palpitations

III. Heat intolerance

IV. Bradycardia

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(D) I, II, III and IV

16. Which of the following conditions may result in abnormal production of white

blood cells?

(A) Anemia

(B) Leukemia

(D) Thrombocytopenia

17. Which of the following conditions describe Truncus Arteriosus?

(A) The aorta comes out of the right ventricle.

(B) The normal position of the arteries is reversed.

(D) A single blood vessel comes out of the right and left ventricles.

18. What types of pneumonia that caused by inhaling secretions into the lungs?

(A) Lobar pneumonia

(B) Bronchopneumonia

(D) Hospital acquired pneumonia

19. Which of the following describes hypercapnia?

(A) Increase sputum production

(B) Increse blood pressure in lung

(D) Increase oxygenation of arterial blood

20. Which of the following describes macrocytic normochromic blood cell?

(A) The shape of cell is vary.

(B) The cell is small and pale.

(D) The cell is large but the colour is normal.

21. Which of the followings are the TWO (2) major types of Inflammatory Bowel

Disease (IBD)?

I. colon cancer

II. gastric cancer

III. Crohn’s disease

IV. ulcerative colitis

(A) I and II

(B) I and IV

(D) III and IV

22. What condition may occur if the integrity of the normal blood-brain barrier is

disrupted?

(A) Hydrocephalus

(B) Cytotoxic edema

(D) Transtentorial herniation

23. Which of the followings are the early symptoms of ALS (Amyothropic Lateral

Sclerosis)?

I. diminish muscles bulk

II. cramping of the arms and legs

III. asymmetric weakness of the hands

IV. involuntary contractions of individual motor unit

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(D) I, II, III and IV

24. Which of the following terms is referred to a condition in which an artery wall

thickens as a result of the accumulation of fatty materials?

(A) Atriosus

(B) Aneurysm

(D) Atherosclerosis

25. Where is the common site of saccular aneurysms in the circle of Willis?

(A) Middle cerebral artery

(B) Anterior cerebral artery

(D) Posterior communicating artery

26. Which of the following blood disorders are caused by abnormal structure or

function of the cell?

I. Thalassemia

II. Polycythemia

III. Aplastic anemia

IV. Sickle-cell disease

(A) I and II

(B) I and IV

(D) III and IV

27. Which of the following described hematemesis?

(A) Vomiting of blood

(B) Blood in the stools

(D) Blood in the brain

28. Which of the following describes the condition of TGA (Transposition of the

Great Artery)?

(A) The aorta comes out of the right ventricle

(B) The aorta narrows in the area where the ductus arteriosus

(D) A single blood vessel comes out of the right and left ventricles

29. Which of the following conditions can produce leaking of blood in the brain itself?

(A) Epidural hematoma

(B) Subdural hematoma

(D) Subarachnoid hematoma

30. Which of the followings statements describe stage 3 colon cancer?

(A) The cancer involves more of the inner wall of the colon or rectum.

(B) The cancer cell is found only in the innermost lining of the colon or rectum.

body.

(D) The cancer has spread outside the colon or rectum to nearby tissue but not

to the lymph nodes.

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. Define the following terminology

a. Sign

b. Lesion

c. Symptom (6 Marks)

2. Explain TWO (2) uses of an autopsy. (4 Marks)

3. State FIVE (5) causes of hypoxia. (5 Marks)

4. Explain the process of tissue responses to injury. (5 Marks)

5. a. State FOUR (4) stages of lobar pneumonia (4 Marks)

b. State FOUR (4) conditions that can damaged the tissue in the lungs. (2 Marks)

6. List FOUR (4) features in Tetralogy of Fallot. (4 Marks)

7. List FIVE (5) clinical features of iron deficiency anemia (IDA). (5 Marks)

8. List FIVE (5) risk factors that might increase the risk of undescended testicle in a newborn.

(5 Marks)

SECTION C: MODIFIED ESSAY QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question1

a. Discuss the categories of shock. (10 Marks)

b. Explain the early and late manifestations of shock. (5 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss menopausal symptoms and the long term effects of a decline in oestrogen levels in

women. (15 Marks)

Question 3

a. Define emphysema. (2 Marks)

b. Explain the different distributions of emphysema. (13 Marks)

January 2013

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTION (30 MARKS)

Choose the best option to answer the questions.

1. What is an apoptosis?

(A) a process in which free radicals are produced during normal aging

(B) a pahtological type of cell death that results from injury of a tissue

cells in each tissue

(D) an abnormal type of cell division in which cdc2 porteins and cyclin promote

proliferation of cells

2. Which of the following cells engulf foreign microorganisms that invade the body?

(A) fibrocytes

(B) adipocytes

(D) phagocytes cells

3. Which of the following defensive cells first reach an area of inflammation?

(A) basophils

(B) monocytes

(D) lymphocytes

4. What is the first stage of inflammation?

(A) activation of tissue repair

(B) increased permeability of blood vessels

(D) phagocyte migration and cytolysis by complement

5. Which of the following is a reversible changes?

(A) Pykonosis

(B) karyorrhexis

(D) endoplasmic reticulum swelling

6. Morphological changes seen in chronic inflammation include an increase in

I. Fibrosis

II. Neutrophils

III. Plasma cells

IV. Lymphocytes

(A) I and II

(B) III and IV

(D) II, III and IV

7. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of reversible injury?

(A) asterisk

(B) water influx

(D) reduce oxidative phosphorylation

8. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

I. Grave’s disease

II. Myasthenia gravis

III. Sickle cell disease

IV. Systemic lupus erythematosus

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(D) II, III and IV

9. What is “the act of naming a disease in an individual patient?

(A) Prognosis

(B) Diagnosis

(D) Epidemiology10. Which of the following describes hypertrophy?

(A) Increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue

(B) Decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue

(D) Decrease in the number of cells (mitosis) in an organ or tissue

11. Which of the following are associated with cell death?

I. Nuclear condensation

II. Nuclear fragmentation

III. Dissolution of the nucleus

IV. Decrease in intracellular Ca++

(A) I and II

(B) III and IV

(D) II, III and IV

12. Which of the following is true when comparing healing by second intention to

healing by first intention?

(A) A scab forms within 24 hours in first intention

(B) A fibrous union is seen in first intention, weeks after injury

(D) Significant granulation and wound contraction are seen in first intention

13. Which of the following would cause an edema?

I. Inflammation

II. Sodium retention

III. Lymphatic obstruction

IV. Decreased hydrostatic pressure

(A) I and II

(B) III and IV

(D) II, III and IV

14. Diseases in which a person's immune system attacks the person's own normal

tissue are called

(A) autoimmune diseases

(B) antigen shifting diseases

(D) secondary immune diseases

15. Which of the following is an effect of a mutation?

I. adds a function to a protein

II. lowers the amount of a protein

III. prevents the formation of protein

IV. any of the event stated above can occur

(A) I and II

(B) III and IV

(D) II, III and IV

16. Which of the following conditions may result in abnormal production of white

blood cells?

(A) Anemia

(B) Leukemia

(D) Thrombocytopenia

17. Which of the following blood disorders are caused by abnormal structure or

function of the cell?

I. Thalassemia

II. Polycythemia

III. Aplastic anemia

IV. Sickle-cell disease

(A) I and II

(B) I and IV

(D) III and IV

18. Which of the following conditions describe Truncus Arteriosus?

(A) The aorta comes out of the right ventricle.

(B) The normal position of the arteries is reversed.

(D) A single blood vessel comes out of the right and left ventricles.

19. Which of the following terms is referred to a condition in which an artery wall

thickens as a result of the accumulation of fatty materials?

(A) Atriosus

(B) Aneurysm

(D) Atherosclerosis

20. Which of the following describes the condition of TGA (Transposition of the

Great Artery)?

(A) The aorta comes out of the right ventricle.

(B) The aorta narrows in the area where the ductus arteriosus.

(D) A single blood vessel comes out of the right and left ventricles.

21. What types of pneumonia that caused by inhaling secretions into the lungs?

(A) Lobar pneumonia

(B) Bronchopneumonia

(D) Hospital acquired pneumonia

22. Which of the following describes hypercapnia?

(A) Increase sputum production

(B) Increse blood pressure in lung

(D) Increase oxygenation of arterial blood

23. Which of the following describes microcytic hypochromic blood cell?

(A) The cell is small and pale

(B) The shape of cell is varying

(D) The cell is large but the colour is normal

24. Which of the followings are the main characteristics of cirrhosis?

I. Bridging fibrous septa

II. Increase number of intrahepatic bile ducts

III. Disruption of the architecture of the entire liver

IV. Parenchymal nodules containing replicating hepatocytes

(A) I , II and III

(B) I, II, and IV

(D) II, III and IV

25. What condition may occur if the integrity of the normal blood-brain barrier is

disrupted?

(A) Hydrocephalus

(B) Cytotoxic edema

(D) Transtentorial herniation

26. Which of the followings are the early symptoms of ALS (Amyothropic Lateral

Sclerosis)?

I. Diminish muscles bulk

II. Cramping of the arms and legs

III. Asymmetric weakness of the hands.

IV. Involuntary contractions of individual motor unit.

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(D) I, II, III and IV

27. Where is the common site of saccular aneurysms in the circle of Willis?

(A) Middle cerebral artery

(B) Anterior cerebral artery

(D) Posterior communicating artery

28. Which of the following described hematemesis?

(A) Vomiting of blood

(B) Blood in the stools

(D) Blood in the brain

29. Which of the following conditions can produce accumulation of blood between the dura and the skull?

(A) Epidural hematoma

(B) Subdural hematoma

(D) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

30. Which of the followings are the major causes of intestinal obstruction?

I. Volvulos

II. Intussusception

III. Adhesions between intestinal loops

IV. Herniation of a segment in the umbilical region

(A) II and III

(B) I, II and IV

(D) I, II, III and IV

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (40 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. State the sequential processes in repair by connective tissue. (4 marks)

2. List FOUR (4) morphological patterns of acute inflammation. (4 marks)

3. List SIX (6) group of injurious stimuli to the cell. (6 marks)

4. Explain the clinical course for the evolution process of a disease. (6 marks)

5. List FOUR (4) sign and symptoms of hemolytic anemia. (4 marks)

6. List SIX (6) clinical features of chronic bronchitis. (6 marks)

7. State FOUR (4) types of jaundice. (4 marks)

8. State SIX (6) signs and symptoms of stroke. (6 marks)

SECTION C: MODIFIED ESSAY QUESTION (30 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question1

(A)List THREE (3) chemical mediators that stimulate the process of cell proliferation. (3 marks)

(B) Illustrate and explain the process of cell proliferation. (12 marks)

Question 2

(A) Define the following

i. Necrosis

ii. Apoptosis (3 marks)

(B) Tabulate SIX (6) features of necrosis and apoptosis (12 marks)

Question 3

(A)List THREE (3) clinical features of atherosclerosis. (3 marks)

(B) Explain the factors that predispose to atherosclerosis. (12 marks)

1/2011/2012

PART A : OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Choose ONE best statement to answer the questions.

1. A discomfort caused by structural or functional abnormalities is referred to

(A) infection.

(B) disease.

(D) diagnosis.

2. Which of the following changes is categorized under systemic pathology?

(A) Cancer

(B) Inflammation

(D) Ageing

3. A state of organ injury due to increase in number of cells is called

(A) hypertrophy.

(B) hyperplasia.

(D) atrophy.

4. Cell ageing involves which of the following mechanism?

(A) Loss of DNA repairs function.

(B) Abnormalities in cell growth.

(D) Reduce in cell metabolism.

5. Which of the following mechanism is NOT associated with inflammation?

(A) Exudation

(B) Hyperaemia

(D) Chemotaxis

6. Morphologic changes seen in chronic inflammation include an increase in

(A) neutrophils, lymphocytes and liquifactive necrosis.

(B) neutrophils, granulocytes and fibrosis.

(D) giant cells, macrophages and coagulative necrosis.

7. The most characteristic feature of granulation tissue is the

(A) growth of fibroblast and vascular endothelial cells.

(B) presence of lymphocytes and fibroblast.

(D) formation of granuloma.

8. The following injuries can lead to fibrosis EXCEPT

(A) inflammation.

(B) wound.

(D) hemorrhage.

9. Changes of blood from a liquid to a solid state is associated with

(A) thrombosis.

(B) edema.

(D) shock.

10. Which of the following type of shock is caused by bacterial infection?

(A) Obstructive

(B) Anaphylactic

(D) Cardiogenic

11. Non-neoplastic growth can be described based on the following changes

EXCEPT

(A) hypertrophy.

(B) metaplasia.

(D) dysplasia.

12. Metaplasia can be defined as

(A) changes in the nature of a tissue.

(B) increase in size of tissue.

(D) spread of malignant tumor.

13. Absent of T and B cells in children is associated with

(A) IgA deficiency.

(B) agammaglobulinemia.

(D) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

14. Production of antinuclear antibodies is associated with

(A) rheumatoid arthritis.

(B) systemic lupus erythematosus.

(D) myasthenia gravis.

15. Which of the following changes is associated with gene mutation?

(A) Trisomy

(B) Translocation

(D) Insertion

16. Simian crease is the clinical sign of

(A) Down’s syndrome.

(B) polydactyly.

(D) syndactyly.

17. Hypotension is associated with

(A) thrombosis.

(B) atheroma.

(D) shock.

18. Suppuration with necrosis of lung tissue is the appearance of

(A) lobar pneumonia.

(B) lung abscess.

(D) tuberculosis.

19. Which of the following disorder is associated with abnormal growth?

(A) Volvulus

(B) Sprue

(D) Polyps

20. Which of the following disease is caused by immune mechanisms?

(A) Acute tubular necrosis

(B) Pyelonephritis

(D) Nephrosclerosis

21. Granulomatous is most frequently associated with

(A) excess of clear fluid.

(B) a persistent infection.

(D) the healing process.

22. Mucosal epithelium is an example of

(A) actively dividing cells.

(B) less dividing cells.

(D) abnormal dividing cells.

23. Elephantiasis is the consequence of

(A) obstruction of the lymph vessel.

(B) cardiac failure.

(D) increase osmotic pressure.

24. Grading of cancer is based on which of the following statements?

(A) Size of the primary tumor.

(B) Spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes.

(D) Degree of differentiation of tumor cells or anaplasia.

25. Which of the following immune disorder is caused by viral infection?

(A) Type I hypersensitivity

(B) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

(D) Systemic lupus erythematosous

26. Individuals with three complete chromosome sets will show an abnormality of

(A) syndactyly.

(B) cleft lip.

(D) hypotonia.

27. Atheroma is associated with the following disorder EXCEPT

(A) myocardial infarction.

(B) stroke.

(D) rheumatic heart disease.

28. Lung infected with miliary tuberculosis can be recognized by

(A) small nodules.

(B) soft granuloma.

(D) caseation.

29. Toludine blue dye can be used to stain bacteria found in

(A) stomach.

(B) brain.

(D) kidney.

30. High serum bilirubin in blood is associated with the following causes EXCEPT

(A) obstruction of the bile ducts.

(B) infection in liver cells.

(D) obstruction to blood flow.

PART B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

1. a. Define the following terminologies. (2 Marks)

i. Necrosis

ii. Autolysis

b. Identify and describe the characteristics of two types of necrosis associated with infections. (6 Marks)

c. Describe the morphologic changes of ageing. (2 Marks)

2. a. Differentiate between healing and regeneration. Give examples for both mechanisms. (4 Marks)

b. Distinguish between the first and second intention of healing mechanism. (6 Marks)

3. a. Describe the etiology and clinical signs of asthma. (4 Marks)

b. Demonstrate how the mast cells contribute to atopic asthma. (6 Marks)

PART C : ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer TWO (2) questions only.

Question 1

Describe the cardinal signs of inflammation. Explain the morphologic types, the etiology and the morphologic outcome of an inflammation characterized by excess number of neutrophils in blood. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Compare two types of growth disorders. Describe the causes of growth disorder associated with tumor and explain how to diagnose an individual with the growth disorder. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Describe how an individual develop atherosclerosis. Identify and describe two types of heart disorder associated with atherosclerosis. The description should include the etiology, symptoms and pathogenesis. (20 Marks)

1/2010/2011

SECTION I :

PART A : TRUE / FALSE QUESTIONS (20 MARKS)

Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE.

1. Common cause of gastritis has been proved to be infection by Helicobacter Pylori.

2. Disease which occur in families are known as acquired diseases.

3. Biopsy is a sample of fluid taken for the purpose of diagnosis .

4. Dysplasia if persist for long time can lead to cancer.

5. Disease due to immune reaction against own tissues is known as autoimmune disorders.

6. Deficiency of Vitamin B5 causes delay in maturation of RBC.

7. Inflammation of pleura produces more fluid is called pneumothorax.

8. Aneurysm is an abnormal dilatation of vein.

9. Common tumor of livers are metastatic tumors from abdominal malignancy.

10. Cirrhosis is diffuse fibrous scarring of liver due to hepatitis.

11. Inflammation of gall bladder is known as cholecystis.

12. Dilatation of urinary tract is known as hydroneprosis.

13. Renal disorders affect blood pressure.

14. Blood production is stimulated by parathyroid hormone.

15. During fetal life, blood is primarily produced in the bone marrow.

16. Iron, Vitamin B12 and Folates are important for normal development of erythrocytes.

17. Infection of the brain is known as encephalitis.

18. Prothrombin Time is to measure the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

19. Myeloma is a special type of malignancy of Plasma cells in bone marrow.

20. Lymphoma is malignancy of lymphoid tissues occurring in blood vessel.

PART B : FILL IN THE BLANK QUESTIONS. (30 MARKS)

Fill in the blank area with appropriate answers.

1. Bone Healing: Fracture heals by (5 marks)

a. Immediate: ________________________

b. Hours: ________________________

c. Days: ________________________

d. Weeks: ________________________

e. Months: ________________________

2. Laboratory investigations (routine) for the diagnosis of renal disorders: (5 marks)

a. Urine chemistry: Sugar, ______________, Ketones.

b. Microscopy: ____________, ______________.

c. Serum electrolytes: __________________________ .

d. Blood urea Nitrogen (BUN) and __________________ .

3. Shock is A This may be due to actual decrease in blood

volume as in bleeding, or dehydration. It can also result from excess B due to

parasympathetic nerve stimulation as in neurogenic or cardiogenic shock. Common types

of shock are Hypovolaemic, Cardiogenic, Septic or toxic.

During shock there is C cardiac output, D blood pressure,

sympathetic nerve E and F of vital organs and less blood to

peripheral organs. This results in G skin & loss of consciousness. This results

in fall of shocked person, this is a protective mechanism by bringing blood to brain by

horizontal position. Shock progresses in two stages.:

1. Early Stage - Reactive changes to H

2. Advanced stage of low blood pressure due to failing I

(10 marks)

SECTION 2:

PART A: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions.

1. Give definition for the following terms: (10 marks)

a. Thrombus.

b. Ischemia.

c. Metaplasia.

d. Apoptosis.

e. Infarction.

2. Abnormal solid matter carried in blood stream and cause obstruction at distant location is known as embolism. Explain category of embolism. . (10 marks)

PART B: ESSAY QUESTIONS. (30 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions.

Question 1

Explain the mechanism of acute inflammation. (10 marks)

Question 2

Distinguish between physiologic, hormonal and pathologic hyperplasia and give examples. (10 marks)

Question 3

Describe the clinical staging of cancer using the TNM system. (10 marks)

2/2009/2010

PART A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (40 marks)

Indicate TRUE (T) or FALSE (F) for each option by blackening the T or F box in the

MCQ ANSWER SHEET using a pencil. For each stem, there may be more than 1 TRUE

or more than 1 FALSE option.

1. Pathology is study of

A. structures of body

B. functions of body

C. cells

D. tissues

E. diseases

2. Etiology means

A. The cause of the disease

B. How the disease develops

C. The changes in structure of cells, tissue and organs

D. The clinical features of the disease

E. How the diseases is treated

3. Reversible cellular injury may cause

A. atrophy

B. hypertrophy

C. hyperplasia

D. hypoplasia

E. dysplasia

4. In metaplasia

A. number of cells increases

B. size of cells increases

C. number of cells decreases

D. size of cell decreases

E. type of cell changes

5. Inflammation can be caused by

A. infection

B. heat

C. trauma

D. chemicals

E. cold

6. In chronic inflammation, _________ move from inside the blood vessels into the

tissue.

A. neutrophils

B. lymphocytes

C. eosinophils

D. monocytes

E. basophils

7. Types of skin wounds include

A. incision wound

B. laceration wound

C. abrasion wound

D. puncture wound

E. gunshot wound

8. Regarding regeneration and healing:

A. Skin with opposed wound heals through primary union

B. Skin with large open wounds heal through secondary union

C. Striated muscles can regenerate

D. Nerve cells can regenerate

E. Bone healing involves formation of ‘callus’

9. Regarding circulatory disorders:

A. Formation of blood clot within blood vessel is known as hemorrhage

B. Abnormal matter carried in blood stream and cause obstruction at distant

location is known as infarction

C. Abnormal dilatation of blood vessels is known as ischemia

D. Decreased blood supply affecting tissue or organ function is known as

aneurysm

E. Death of tissue due to lack of blood supply is known as embolism

10. Internal hemorrhage includes

A. Hematoma

B. Hemothorax

C. Hemoperitoneum

D. Hemopericardium

E. Hemarthrosis

11. Opportunistic infection in AIDS includes

A. Pneumocystis carinii

B. Candidiasis

C. Tuberculosis

D. Skin infection

E. Kaposi’s sarcoma

12. Benign neoplasia

A. grows slowly

B. have capsules

C. invades other structures

D. is small in size

E. is very difficult to treat

13. Klinefelter Syndrome is due to sex chromosomal abnormality

A. XO

B. XXX

C. XXY

D. XXXY

E. XYY

14. Examples of genetic disorders with abnormal numbers of chromosomes are

A. Down Syndrome

B. Edwards Syndrome

C. Patau Syndrome

D. Williams Syndrome

E. Cri-du-chat Syndrome

15. Bacterial infections of the skin may present as

A. measles

B. furuncle

C. carbuncle

D. impetigo

E. acne

16. Etiologies of sexually transmitted infections include

A. Neissaria gonorrhea

B. Treponema pallidum

C. Human papilloma virus

D. Human immunodeficiency virus

E. Staphylococcus aureus

17. Regarding conditions in nutritional disorders

A. Beriberi is caused by lack of Vitamin B1

B. Pellagra is caused by lack of Vitamin B3

C. Scurvy is caused by lack of Vitamin D

D. Rickets is caused by lack of Vitamin E

E. Marasmus is caused by lack of fibers

18. Species of hookworms include

A. Ascaris lumbricoides

B. Necator americanus

C. Ancylostoma duodenale

D. Trichuris trichuria

E. Enterobius vermicularis

19. Occupational diseases include

A. pneumoconiosis

B. occupational asthma

C. mesothelioma

D. radiation sickness

E. contact dermatitis

20. Common symptoms of hypertension include

A. headache

B. dizziness

C. blurred vision

D. nausea

E. fever and chill

SECTION B – SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions. Write your answers in the ANSWER BOOKLET provided. Each

answer must be short and precise (a phrase or a word).

1. Identify the structures that are inflamed in: (5 marks)

a. Dermatitis

b. Arthritis

c. Osteomyelitis

d. Hepatitis

e. Encephalitis

2. Give the meanings to these signs of acute inflammation according to Celcus:

(5 marks)

a. Rubor

b. Calor

c. Dolor

d. Tumor

e. Functio laesa

3. List signs and symptoms of shock. (5 marks)

4. State: (5 marks)

a. 2 example of hypersensitivity disorders

b. 2 examples of autoimmune disorders

c. 1 example of immunodeficiency disorders

5. Name the structures from which these tumors arise: (5 marks)

a. Adenoma

b. Lipoma

c. Rhabdomyosarcoma

d. Osteoma

e. Chondroma

6. Name the clinical conditions of these genetic disorders. (5 marks)

a. Trisomy-21

b. Trisomy-18

c. Trisomy-13

d. XXY

e. XO

7. Name the microorganisms that cause: (5 marks)

a. Measles

b. Mumps

c. Rubella

d. Shingles

e. Chickenpox

8. List the diseases regarded as ‘lifestyle diseases’. (5 marks)

SECTION C – ESSAY QUESTIONS (20 MARKS)

Choose and answer only TWO (2) questions. Write your answers in the ANSWER BOOKLET provided. Your answer must be elaborate, in complete sentences and divided into paragraphs and points form.

1. Differentiate necrosis and apoptosis. Give examples of apoptosis in physiological and pathological conditions. (10 marks)

2. Write a short note on AIDS. (10 marks)

3. Compare and contrast marasmus and kwashiorkor. (10 marks)

4. What is evidence-based medicine? Differentiate modern medicine, complementary medicine and alternative medicine. Give examples. (10 marks)

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