My Human Anatomy and Physiology Notes 1

Sept 2018

1. Touch receptors are classified as

(A) nociceptors

(B) osmoreceptors

(D) mechanoreceptors*

2. The “white” of the eye is called the

(A) iris

(B) sclera*

(D) conjunctiva

3. The function of auditory ossicles--middle ear bones, the malleus, incus, and stapes is to

(A) collect sound waves--external ear, auricle

(B) convert vibrations to action potential

(D) amplify vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window*

4. The first motor neuron in an autonomic pathway is called a

(A) preganglionic neuron*

(B) periganglionic neuron

(D) interganglionic neuron

5. All of the following are common effectors of the autonomic nervous system

EXCEPT

(A) nervous tissue*

(B) cardiac muscle

(D) skeletal muscle

6. Which of the following is a sympathetic response?

(A) decrease digestion*

(B) decrease heart rate

(D) decrease respiratory rate

7. A shallow groove on the surface of the cerebrum is called a

(A) sulcus*

(B) fissure

(D) indentation

8. The neuron that conducts nerve impulses into the central nervous system is known as the

(A) interneuron

(B) motor neuron

(D) autonomic nerve

9. The innermost layer of the meninges is the

(A) pia mater*

(B) dura mater--tough outer layer

(D) arachnoid mater--middle layer, web-like fluid

10. The portion of the brain stem that is continuous with the spinal cord is the

(A) pons

(B) midbrain

(D) medulla oblongata*

11. Which area of the brain regulates posture and balance--sense of equilibrium and is essential for all skilled motor activities?

(A) thalamus--cognition, pain, touch, pressure, temp.

(B) brain stem

(C) cerebellum* +correct voluntary muscle contraction & posture based on sensory data from body about actual movements, appears to be involved in cognition

(D) limbic system

12. Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?

(A) control of emotions

(B) regulation of breathing

(D) regulation of body temperature*

13. The characteristic ability of neurons to respond to a stimulus and convert it into a nerve impulse is called

(A) elasticity

(B) excitability*

(D) conductivity

14. In resting neurons, neurotransmitters are stored in

(A) dendrites

(B) synaptic cleft

(D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

15. The speed of nerve impulse conduction is determined by all of the following

EXCEPT

(A) fiber diameter

(B) length of fiber

(D) strength of stimulus*

16. The darker portion of the sarcomere composed of thick filaments and in some areas overlapping thin filaments is called the

(A) I band--light

(B) M line

(D) A band*

17. Tunnel-like extensions of the sarcolemma into a skeletal muscle fibre are called

(A) thin filaments

(B) thick filaments

(D) sarcoplasmic reticulum

18. During muscle contraction, the energy in creatine phosphate is directly used to convert

(A) glycogen to glucose

(B) pyruvic acid to lactic acid

(D) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to adenosine triphosphate (ATP)+creatine*

19. Which of the following are classified as flat bones?

(A) femur

(B) vertebrae

(D) cranial bones*

20. The ends of a long bone is called the

(A) diaphysis

(B) epiphysis*

(D) periosteum

21. The hormones responsible for maintaining homeostasis relative to blood calcium levels are

(A) calcitriol only

(B) thyroid hormones only

(D) parathyroid hormone and calcitonin*

22. The superficial portion of the hair that projects above the surface of the skin is the

(A) root

(B) bulb

(D) follicle

23. The only layer of the epidermis that contains stem cells capable of continued cell division is the

(A) stratum basale*

(B) stratum lucidum--clear layer found in thick skin located at fingertips, palms, soles

(D) stratum spinosum

stratum granulosum--lamellar granules secrete lipids and acts as water-repellent sealant

24. The function of keratin in the skin is to

(A) help synthesis vitamin D

(B) act as a water repellent sealant--lamellar granules

(D) toughen the outer layers of the skin*

25. A type of epithelial tissue containing cells that can change shapes as the tissue

stretches is called

(A) transitional epithelium*

(B) simple squamous epithelium

(D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium

26. The fibres found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue are made of

(A) lipid

(B) protein*collagen

(D) carbohydrate

27. Which of the following is a MOST common function of dense connective tissue?

(A) support*

(B) secretion

(D) contraction

28. The cytoplasm is a term that refers to

(A) the fluid portion of the cell

(B) all the organelles combined

(D) the organelles and the nucleus

29. Which of the following intracellular structures is considered to be part of the

cytoskeleton?

(A) cytosol

(B) nucleus

(D) microtubules*microfilaments&intermediate filaments

30. The protein synthesis process called translation requires

(A) ribosomes*mRNA&tRNA

(B) mitochondria

(D) endoplasmic reticulum

1. a. Define

i. Sensation (2 Marks)

Sensation is a conscious or unconscious awareness of external or internal stimuli. Thermoreceptor, baroreceptor, nociceptor, chemoreceptor.

ii. Perception (2 Marks)

Perception is a conscious awareness and interpretation of a sensation.

b. Name the TWO (2) general classes of senses and an example each. (2 Marks)

General sense: somatic and visceral senses

Special sense: modalities of smell, taste, vision, hearing, and equilibrium

2. a. Draw and label a transverse section of an eyeball. (4 Marks)

b. Identify THREE (3) accessory structures of the eye and their functions.(6 Marks)

3. a. State the alternative terms which describe the outflow of nerve impulses of the sympathetic division and parasympathetic division. (2 Marks)

b. Compare the structures of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.(6 Marks)

c. Identify THREE (3) parasympathetic responses. (6 Marks)

Question 1

a. With the aid of diagrams, describe the classification of neurons according to

structure. (10 Marks)

b. Differentiate action potential and resting membrane potential. (10 Marks)

Question 2

a. Discuss the effects of aging on the skin. (10 Marks)

b. Describe epidermal wound healing. (10 Marks)

Question 3

Describe an example of

a. negative feedback system (10 Marks)

b. positive feedback system (10 Marks)

Sept 2017

1. Which of the following can be seen in aging skin?

(A) increase in collagen fibres

(B) fibroblasts increase in numbers

(D) increase in the elasticity of elastic fibres

2. Exocrine glands that secrete oil(sebum) directly on to hair follicles are called

(A) apocrine

(B) sebaceous*

(D) sudoriferous

3. The protein that helps protect skin and underlying cells from abrasions, heat and

microbes is called

(A) keratin*

(B) melanin

(D) haemoglobin

4. Which ion channels open to allow depolarization to happen?

(A) chloride ion (Cl-)

(B) sodium ion (Na+)* at axon closest to body cell

(D) potassium ion (K+)

5. The neuroglial cell that lines the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of

the spinal cord is called a(n)

(A) astrocyte

(B) microglia

(D) oligodendrocyte

6. The site where either two neurons or a neuron and effector communicate is called a

(A) synapse*

(B) axon terminal

(D) neuromuscular junction

7. The innermost layer of the meninges is the

(A) pia mater*

(B) dura mater--tough outer

(D) subarachnoid space--under arachnoid, is filled with CSF and contains blood vessels

8. Which of the following components of a reflex arc would a muscle or gland MOST likely serve as?

(A) effector*

(B) sensory neuron

(D) integrating centre

9. The portion of the brain stem that is continuous with the spinal cord is the

(A) pons

(B) midbrain

(D) medulla oblongata*

10. The cytoplasm is a term that refers to

(A) the fluid portion of the cell

(B) all cell organelles combined

(D) microtubules and microfilaments only

11. The type of cell division that produces two identical cells is called

(A) mitosis*

(B) meiosis I

(D) cytokinesis

12. Which of the following components strengthens the plasma membrane?

(A) glycolipids

(B) cholesterol

(D) integral proteins

13. The brain region that controls MOST autonomic responses is the

(A) pons

(B) cerebrum

(D) hypothalamus*+brain stem

14. All of the following are common effectors of the autonomic nervous system

(ANS) EXCEPT

(A) nervous tissue*

(B) cardiac muscle

(D) skeletal muscle

15. An involuntary effector that receives impulses from both the sympathetic and

parasympathetic divisions of the ANS is said to have

(A) dual innervation*

(B) somatic innervation

(D) antagonistic innervation

16. The process in which the strength of a sensation decreases during a prolonged

stimulation is called

(A) inhibition

(B) relaxation

(D) consolidation

17. Touch receptors are classified as

(A) nociceptors

(B) proprioceptors

(D) mechanoreceptors*

18. Which of the following areas of the brain are involved in olfaction?

(A) hypothalamus

(B) limbic system

(D) All of the above*

19. The maintenance of relatively stable conditions within the body is known as

(A) growth

(B) metabolism

(D) responsiveness

20. The anatomical term which BEST describes a structure that is found toward the

head is

(A) inferior--away from head

(B) anterior/ventral--front of body

(D) posterior/dorsal--back of body

medial-near to midline

lateral-far from midline

proximal-near to limb attached to trunk

distal-far form limb attached to trunk

21. The body cavity containing the urinary bladder and portions of the large intestine

is the

(A) pelvic*

(B) cranial

(D) abdominal

22. The tissue lining body cavities is called

(A) muscle tissue

(B) nervous tissue

(D) connective tissue

23. Which is the MAIN function of stratified squamous epithelium?

(A) secretion

(B) diffusion

(D) absorption

24. Which of the following types of membranes line body cavities that open directly

to the exterior?

(A) parietal membrane--outer layer

(B) visceral membrane--covers internal organs

(D) synovial membrane--do not open directly to outside

25. The compact bone is arranged in units called the

(A) osteon*Haversian systems

(B) lamellae

(D) trabeculae

26. Which bone cells is responsible for bone resorption?

(A) osteocytes 3--maintain bone tissue, no matrix, mature cells

(B) osteoclasts* 4

(D) osteoprogenitor cells 1--develops to osteoblast (periosteum&endosteum)

27. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the axial skeleton?

(A) skull

(B) fibula*

(D) vertebrae

28. The neurotransmitter released from the motor neuron at a neuromuscular junction is

(A) dopamine

(B) serotonine

(D) acetylcholine*

29. Which of the following ions is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the

sarcoplasm to initiate skeletal muscle contraction?

(A) sodium

(B) calcium*

(D) potassium

30. Intercalated discs are characteristic structures found in

(A) cardiac muscle*

(B) smooth muscle

(D) All of the above

1. a. List the layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial. (5 Marks)

b. Recall FIVE (5) functions of the skin. (5 Marks)

2. a. Identify the functions of neurons and neuroglia. (6 Marks)

b. Name the components of the central and peripheral nervous system.

(4 Marks)

3. a. Recognize the functions of the spinal cord. (6 Marks)

b. Name the FOUR (4) components of diencephalon. (2 Marks)

c. Name the FOUR (4) lobes of the cerebrum. (2 Marks)

Question 1

a. Discuss FIVE (5) types of transport across the cell membrane. (10 Marks)

b. Recall FIVE (5) organelles and their functions. (10 Marks)

Question 2

a. Describe the structure of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the

ANS. (10 Marks)

b. Recognize FIVE (5) responses of the sympathetic division of the ANS.

(10 Marks)

Question 3

a. Discuss the conditions that must be satisfied for a sensation to occur. (10 Marks)

b. Summarize the process of gustation (sense of taste). (10 Marks)

Jan 2017

1. Pressure receptors that consist of a large oval-shaped, multilayered connective

tissue capsule that encloses a dendrite are called

(A) nociceptors--pain

(B) Ruffini corpuscles

(D) Meissner’s corpuscles--light touch

2. Which of the following structures is part of the vascular tunic--middle layer of the eye?

(A) iris*

(B) retina

(D) cornea

3. Which of the following is found in the middle ear?

(A) cochlea

(B) vestibule

(D) auditory ossicles*+oval & round window

4. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is also referred to as the

(A) enteric division

(B) somatic division

(D) thoracolumbar division*

5. Which of the following is TRUE of both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

(A) have two motor neurons

(B) have long preganglionic neurons*

(D) have ganglia located close to the effectors

6. The balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic activity or autonomic “tone” is regulated by the

(A) thalamus

(B) epithalamus

(D) hypothalamus*

7. The innermost layer of the meninges is the

(A) pia*

(B) dura

(D) cranial bones

8. The cardiovascular centre, which controls the rate and force of the heartbeat and the diameter of blood vessels, is located in the

(A) cerebrum

(B) brain stem*--medulla oblongata

(D) diencephalon

9. The area of the brain that regulates posture and balance and is essential for all skilled motor activities is the

(A) cerebrum

(B) brain stem

(D) diencephalon

10. All of the following are part of the peripheral nervous system EXCEPT

(A) ganglia

(B) spinal cord*

(D) cranial nerves

11. Name the structure E.

(A) axon

(B) dendrites

(D) Schwann cell*

12. Which of the labelled structures in the Figure 1 contains synaptic vesicles that store neurotransmitters?

(A) C

(B) D

(D) F

13. Each individual muscle fibre is covered by a layer of connective tissue called the

(A) fascia

(B) epimysium

(D) endomysium

14. The darker portion of the sarcomere composed of thick filaments and in some

areas overlapping thin filaments is called the

(A) I zone

(B) Z disc

(D) A zone*

15. The organelle that stores calcium in a resting skeletal muscle fibre is the

(A) T tubules

(B) mitochondria

(D) sarcoplasmic reticulum*

16. Which of the following is classified as a long bone?

(A) cranial

(B) humerus*

(D) vertebrae

17. The site where bone lengthening occurs in a long bone is called the

(A) diaphysis

(B) periosteum

(D) epiphyseal plate*

18. The bone cells primarily responsible for bone resorption are

(A) osteocytes

(B) osteoclasts*

(D) osteoprogenitor cells

19. The cells producing the pigment responsible for skin colour are the

(A) Merkel cells--sensation of touch

(B) melanocytes*

(D) Langerhans cells--immune

20. The only layer of the epidermis that contains stem cells capable of continued cell

division is the

(A) stratum basale*

(B) stratum corneum

(D) stratum granulosum

21. Perspiration is the substance secreted by

(A) salivary glands

(B) sebaceous glands

(D) sudoriferous glands*

22. A type of epithelial tissue containing cells that can change shapes as the tissue

stretches is called

(A) transitional epithelium*

(B) simple cuboidal epithelium

(D) stratified squamous epithelium

23. A type of tissue that functions in support and protection of body organs, stores

energy, and provides immunity is called

(A) muscle tissue

(B) nervous tissue

(D) connective tissue*

24. Which of the following types of tissue contains neuroglia cells?

(A) muscle tissue

(B) nervous tissue* +neuron

(D) connective tissue

25. Exocytosis is an example of

(A) osmosis

(B) active transport*

(D) facilitated diffusion

26. Which of the following organelles is the site of synthesis of steroid hormones like

oestrogens and testosterone?

(A) ribosomes

(B) Golgi apparatus

(D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum*

27. The protein synthesis process called transcription happen in the

(A) cytosol

(B) nucleus*

(D) mitochondria

28. The life process of reproduction refers to

(A) the formation of new cells

(B) an increase in the number of cells

(D) both the formation of new cells and the production of a new individual*--repair old cells

29. Which directional term is use to describe the location of the sternum in relation to

the heart?

(A) distal

(B) medial*

(D) anterior

30. The urinary bladder is located in the

(A) pelvic cavity*

(B) cranial cavity

(D) abdominal cavity

1. a. Define sensation and adaptation. (4 Marks)

b. Name the receptor for taste. (1 Mark)

c. Briefly describe the sense of taste. (5 Marks)

2. a. State the FIVE (5) key functions of muscular tissue. (5 Marks)

b. Name the proteins of the thick and thin filaments. (2 Marks)

c. List the THREE (3) sources of ATP in muscle metabolism and the duration of energy each provide. (3 Marks)

3. a. Compare THREE (3) properties of the somatic and autonomic nervous system. (6 Marks)

b. Recognize FOUR (4) effects of the sympathetic stimulation. (4 Marks)

Question 1

a. Identify the functions of the different types of tissues. (10 Marks)

b. Explain the components of connective tissue. (10 Marks)

Question 2

Define and explain

a. epidermal wound healing (10 Marks)

b. deep wound healing (10 Marks)

Question 3

a. Describe the components of the reflex arc. (10 Marks)

b. Summarise the repair of nervous tissue. (10 Marks)

Aug 2016

1. The maintenance of relatively stable conditions within the body is known as

(A) growth

(B) homeostasis*

(D) responsiveness

2. In a negative feedback system, the response of the effector to a stimulus

(A) reverses the original stimulus*

(B) enhances the original stimulus--positive feedback

(D) does not change the original stimulus

3. The organ system that regulates the body's activities using chemical regulators

called hormones is the

(A) urinary system

(B) nervous system

(D) endocrine system*

4. Which of the following is necessary for simple diffusion to take place?

(A) ion channels

(B) a hypertonic solution

(D) a concentration gradient*

5. The organelle that contains as many as 60 different digestive enzymes is called

the

(A) ribosomes--rRNA, occur singly or cluster with ER, synthesize protein, 10-20 combine=polyribosome

(B) lysosomes*-->50 membrane protein, synthesized in RER, exported to GA

(D) endoplasmic reticulum--network of membrane form flattened sacs/tubules (cisterns), RER-ribosome, transport substances, stores, synthesize, packages molecules, detoxifies chemical, release Ca+ for muscle contraction

6. The type of cell division that produces two identical cells is called

(A) mitosis--somatic cell division, 2 daughter cells (2n)

(B) meiosis I--2 daughter cells (n)

(D) cytokinesis*--cytoplasm+organelles to cells

7. The tissue lining body cavities is called

(A) muscle tissue

(B) nervous tissue

(D) connective tissue

8. All of the following cell types are commonly found in MOST types of connective

tissues EXCEPT

(A) glial cells*--neuroglia, nervous tissue, maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and provide support and protection for neurons

(B) mast cells--abundant at blood vessel, produce histamine, dilates injury/infection, bind ingest kill bacteria

(D) macrophages--develop from monocytes (WBC), irregular shape, short branching projections, engulf bacteria, phagocytosis

9. Which of the following types of tissue would MOST likely have the best blood

supply?

(A) muscle*

(B) tendon

(D) epithelium

10. The MOST superficial portion of the skin is the

(A) dermis

(B) epidermis*--stratum corneum

(D) subcutaneous

11. The protein that helps protect skin and underlying cells from abrasions, heat and

microbes is called

(A) keratin*

(B) myosin

(D) collagen

12. The portion of a fingernail that extends past the end of the finger is called the

(A) lunula--white, stratum basale

(B) nail root/groove--end

(D) nail body*--pink, capillaries

13. Which of the following are classified as flat bones?

(A) femur

(B) vertebrae

(D) cranial bones*

14. During endochondral ossification, secondary ossification centres develop

(A) in the medullary cavity--osteoclast create medullar cavity, appositional growth (4)

(B) after development of the trabeculae

(D) simultaneously with the primary ossification centre

15. Which of the following types of bone cells is considered the primary bone-

building cell?

(A) osteocytes--mature bone cells

(B) osteoclasts--break down and reabsorb bone

(D) osteoprogenitor

16. An individual sarcomere within a myofibril is the area between two

(A) Z discs*

(B) M lines

(D) A bands

17. The neurotransmitter released from the motor neuron at a neuromuscular junction is

(A) serotonin

(B) dopamine

(D) acetylcholine*

18. Intercalated discs are characteristic structures found in

(A) cardiac muscle*

(B) skeletal muscle

(D) All of the above

19. Neurons that conduct nerve impulses from the receptors to the central nervous

system are

(A) interneurons--within CNS

(B) motor neurons--efferent, from CNS to effector

(D) association neurons

20. A bundle of myelinated axons within the white matter of the central nervous

system is called a(n)

(A) tract*

(B) nerve

(D) ganglion

21. All of the following are functions of the nervous system EXCEPT

(A) detecting changes

(B) analysing changes*

(D) responding to changes

22. Which of the following components of a reflex arc would a muscle or gland

MOST likely serve as?

(A) effector*

(B) receptor

(D) integrating centre

23. The portion of the brain that is continuous with the spinal cord is the

(A) pons--superior of medulla, connect brain & spinal cord

(B) midbrain

(D) medulla oblongata*

24. Which of the following areas of the brain is sometimes referred to as the

“emotional brain”?

(A) thalamus

(B) brain stem

(D) limbic system*

25. The first motor neuron in an autonomic pathway is called a

(A) sympathetic neuron

(B) preganglionic neuron*

(D) parasympathetic neuron

26. The brain region that controls most autonomic responses is the

(A) thalamus

(B) cerebrum

(D) hypothalamus*--limbic system, brainstem

27. All of the following are common effectors of the autonomic nervous system

EXCEPT

(A) glands

(B) cardiac muscle

(D) smooth muscle

28. The process in which the strength of a sensation decreases during a prolonged

stimulation is called

(A) perception

(B) adaptation*

(D) consolidation

29. Which of the following senses is regarded as a special sense?

(A) touch

(B) balance*

(D) vibration

30. The sensory receptors found in the tongue that respond to substances in food are

called

(A) photoreceptors

(B) proprioceptors

(D) gustatory receptors*

1. a. Define tissue level of organization. (2 Marks)

b. Define organ level of organization. (2 Marks)

c. Identify the life processes of humans. (6 Marks)

2. a. Recall the components of the peripheral nervous system and their functions.

(6 Marks)

b. State the name and function of neuroglial cells found in the central nervous

system. (4 Marks)

3. a. Recognize the functions of the spinal cord. (6 Marks)

b. Name only FOUR (4) protective coverings of the brain. (2 Marks)

c. Identify the components of diencephalon. (2 Marks)

Question 1

a. Describe the appearance and functions of the THREE (3) types of skeletal

muscle fibres. (10 Marks)

b. Identify only FIVE (5) principle features for each skeletal and smooth muscle

tissue. (10 Marks)

Question 2

a. Describe the structure of both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the

autonomic nervous system. (10 Marks)

b. Recall FIVE (5) effects of parasympathetic stimulation. (10 Marks)

Question 3

a. Outline the steps in vision. (10 Marks)

b. Give an overview of the process of hearing. (10 Marks)

Jan 2016

1. The science of dealing with body functions is called

(A) anatomy

(B) histology

(D) physiology*

2. Which of the following structures of a feedback system sends input to the control

center?

(A) effector

(B) affector*

(D) stimulus

3. The structure located inferior to the liver is

(A) spleen

(B) stomach

(D) right kidney*

4. Detoxification of chemicals occur in

(A) nucleus

(B) ribosomes

(D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum*

5. Facilitated diffusion is described as

(A) movement of a substance across its concentration gradient

(B) transport of substances in vesicles across the cell membrane

assistance of a carrier*

(D) movement of water from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration of solutes

6. Meiosis is the type of cell division used during the formation of

(A) sperm cells*

(B) cancer cells

(D) red blood cells

7. Which of the following types of tissues is often associated with goblet cells--secrete mucus?

(A) cuboidal epithelium

(B) columnar epithelium*

(D) transitional epithelium

8. A type of tissue that functions in support and protection of body organs, stores

energy, and provides immunity is called

(A) muscle tissue

(B) nervous tissue

(D) connective tissue*

9. Which property of a muscle tissue is described as the ability to return to its

original shape after being stretched?

(A) elasticity*

(B) excitability

(D) conductivity

10. What is the function of the lipid-rich secretion released from lamellar granules found in the stratum granulosum?

(A) synthesis vitamin D

(B) block UV rays from the sun--melanin

(D) toughen the outer layers of the skin--keratin

11. The only layer of the epidermis that contains stem cells capable of continued cell division is the

(A) stratum basale*--mitosis

(B) stratum lucidum--thicken layer, keratin

(D) stratum spinosum

12. Perspiration refers to the secretion of

(A) sweat*

(B) sebum

(D) cerumen

13. Which of the following is a long bone?

(A) rib

(B) skull

(D) sternum

14. The function of osteoclasts is to

(A) build bone--osteoblast form matrix & collagen fiber

(B) destroy bone*

(D) develop into osteoblasts--osteogenic cells

15. Ossification refers to

(A) bone healing

(B) bone formation*

(D) bone remodelling

16. The darker portion of the sarcomere composed of thick filaments and in some areas overlapping thin filaments is called the

(A) Z disc--separate sacromere

(B) M line

(D) A band*

17. Which ion is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate skeletal muscle contraction?

(A) sodium (Na)

(B) calcium (Ca)*

(D) potassium (K)

18. Which types of muscle are striated?

(A) cardiac and smooth (viscera, involuntary) muscle

(B) cardiac (heart, involuntary control, autorhythmic) and skeletal muscle (light & dark band)*

(D) cardiac, skeletal and smooth muscle

19. The white matter refers to areas in the brain and the spinal cord which consists of

(A) dendrites

(B) neuroglia

(D) myelinated axon*

20. The neuroglial cell that forms the blood brain barrier is the

(A) astrocyte**--star-shaped, metobolize neurotransmitter, regulate K+ balance

(B) microglia*--small cells near blood vessel, phagocytic

(D) ependymal cell--CFS production, form epithelial membrane lining cerebral cavities & central canal

21. Which of the following is NOT a function of neuroglial cells?

(A) conduct impulses*

(B) protect and support

(D) produce cerebrospinal fluid

22. Cranial nerves refer to

(A) nerves that exit the brain

(B) branches of spinal nerves

(D) nerves found within the brain tissue*

23. The layer of the meninges that is located closest to the surrounding bone is called the

(A) pia mater--inner

(B) dura mater*

(D) subarachnoid space

24. A function of the hypothalamus includes

(A) initiation of heart rate

(B) regulation of body temperature*

(D) regulation of the basic rhythm of breathing

25. Which region of the central nervous system do the preganglionic sympathetic

motor neurons originate?

(A) cerebrum

(B) cerebellum

(D) brainstem and sacral region of spinal cord--parasympathetic

26. An involuntary effector that receives impulses from both the sympathetic and

parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system is said to have

(A) dual innervation*--sympathetic speed up organ, para- slow down

(B) single innervation

(D) antagonistic innervation

27. Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic response?

(A) sweating*

(B) digestion

(D) lacrimation

28. The class of sensory receptors that can detect pain are

(A) separate cells

(B) proprioceptors

(D) encapsulated nerve endings

29. The sense that tells us which muscles are contracted, the amount of tension in a

joint, the position of the joints, and orientation of the head is called

(A) olfaction

(B) gustation

(D) tactile sensation

30. Which of the following is NOT a result of improper refraction?

(A) myopia

(B) hyperopia

(D) convergence*

1. a. Define perception and sensation. (4 Marks)

b. Name the receptor for taste. (1 Mark)

c. Briefly describe the sense of taste or gustation. (5 Marks)

2. a. Recall only THREE (3) functions of the skin. (6 Marks)

b. Identify only TWO (2) accessory structures of the skin and its function.

(2 Marks)

c. List TWO (2) cells of the epidermis and its function. (2 Marks)

3. a. Compare THREE (3) properties of the somatic and autonomic nervous

system. (6 Marks)

b. Recognize FOUR (4) effects of the sympathetic stimulation. (4 Marks)

Question 1

a. Identify the functions of the different types of tissues. (10 Marks)

b. Explain the components of connective tissue. (10 Marks)

Question 2

a. With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe the function of each part of a neuron.

(10 Marks)

b. Summarize the formation of an action potential. (10 Marks)

Question 3

a. Summarize the repair of an axon. (10 Marks)

Axon regeneration

Myelination

b. Discuss FIVE (5) functions of the cerebrum. (10 Marks)

Aug 2015

1. The first motor neuron in an autonomic pathway is called a

(A) sympathetic neuron

(B) preganglionic neuron*

(D) parasympathetic neuron

2. The brain region that controls most autonomic responses is the

(A) thalamus

(B) cerebrum

(D) hypothalamus*

3. All of the following are common effectors of the autonomic nervous system

EXCEPT

(A) nervous tissue*

(B) cardiac muscle

(D) skeletal muscle

4. Endocytosis is an example of

(A) active transport*

(B) simple diffusion

(D) facilitated diffusion

5. The organelle that contains digestive enzymes is called the

(A) lysosome*

(B) mitochondria

(D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

6. The protein synthesis process called translation requires

(A) nucleus

(B) ribosomes*

(D) mitochondria

7. The portion of the brain stem that is continuous with the spinal cord is the

(A) pons

(B) midbrain

(D) medulla oblongata*

8. Which of the following areas of the brain is sometimes referred to as the

“emotional brain”?

(A) pineal gland

(B) hypothalamus

(D) reticular activating system

9. The layer of the meninges that is located closest to the surrounding bone is

called the

(A) pia mater

(B) dura mater*

(D) arachnoid mater

10. Which of the following is a type of cartilaginous joint?

(A) suture

(B) synovial

(D) gomphosis

11. Which of the following are classified as flat bones?

(A) femur

(B) vertebrae

(D) cranial bones*

12. The site where bone lengthening occurs in a long bone is called the

(A) diaphysis

(B) epiphyses

(D) epiphyseal plate*

13. Which of the labelled structures in the Figure 1 contains synaptic vesicles that store neurotransmitters?

Figure 1

(A) A

(B) B

(D) F* synapse

14. Enteric motor neurons are responsible for stimulating

(A) contraction of skeletal muscle

(B) contraction of respiratory tract smooth muscle

(D) contraction of gastrointestinal tract smooth muscle*

15. All of the following are functions of the nervous system EXCEPT

(A) sensing changes

(B) storing potassium

(D) responding to changes

16. The sum of all chemical processes that occur in the human body is referred to as

(A) anabolism

(B) catabolism

(D) homeostasis

17. All of the following are examples of organs EXCEPT

(A) heart

(B) brain

(D) peritoneum*

18. In a negative feedback system, the response of the effector to a stimulus

(A) reverses the original stimulus*

(B) enhances the original stimulus

(D) does not change the original stimulus

19. The class of sensory receptors that are structurally the simplest are

(A) separate cells

(B) proprioceptors

(D) encapsulated nerve endings

20. Pain of visceral origin that is felt at a surface location is called

(A) sharp pain

(B) delayed pain

(D) phantom pain

21. Which of the following is found in the middle ear?

(A) cochlea

(B) vestibule

(D) auditory ossicles*

22. Cells of the skin’s epidermis that participate in the immune response to microbes

are called

(A) Merkel cells

(B) melanocytes

(D) Langerhans cells*

23. The bundle of smooth muscle associated with each hair follicle is called the

(A) hair matrix

(B) sebaceous bundle

(D) arrector pili muscle*

24. Which of following layers associated with the skin would most likely contain a large amount of fat tissue?

(A) dermis

(B) epidermis

(D) dermal papillae

25. The pigmented protein in skeletal muscle fibres that stores oxygen is called

(A) melanin

(B) carotene

(D) haemoglobin

26. Which of the following substances is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm to initiate skeletal muscle contraction?

(A) sodium

(B) calcium*

(D) magnesium

27. The bone cells primarily responsible for bone resorption are

(A) osteocyte

(B) osteoclast*--multi-nucleated cells that contain numerous mitochondria and lysosomes. generally present on the outer layer of bone, just beneath the periosteum

(D) osteogenic cells

28. Which of the following types of tissues is often ciliated?

(A) cuboidal epithelium

(B) columnar epithelium*--cilia move mucous, respiratory, uterine tubes

(D) transitional epithelium

29. The fibres found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue are made of

(A) lipids

(B) proteins*

(D) carbohydrates

30. Which of the following types of tissue contains neuroglia cells?

(A) muscle tissue

(B) nervous tissue*

(D) connective tissue

1. Briefly describe the basic functions of the nervous system. (6 Marks)

2. a. Draw and label the THREE (3) types of neurons. (3 Marks)

b. Name and state the functions of only THREE (3) types of neuroglia cells. (6 Marks)

3. Identify the components of a reflex arc. (5 Marks)

4. Briefly explain the functions of the spinal cord. (6 Marks)

5. Give only TWO (2) functions of the medulla oblongata. (4 Marks)

Question 1

a. Define convergence and discuss accommodation viewing objects which are close and far. (10 Marks)

b. Describe the steps in vision. (10 Marks)

Question 2

Define and explain

a. epidermal wound healing (10 Marks)

b. deep wound healing (10 Marks)

Question 3

Compare

a. somatic and autonomic nervous system (10 Marks)

b. the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on sweat and salivary glands, heart, lungs and stomach (10 Marks)

Jan 2015

1. The brain region that controls most autonomic responses is the

(A) thalamus

(B) cerebrum

(D) hypothalamus*

2. Which division of the nervous system contains sensory neurons and motor neurons associated with voluntary actions only?

(A) enteric--involuntary, control GI tract, neurons function independently of ANS & CNS

(B) somatic*--neurons from cutaneous & special sensory receptors to CNS. motor neuron to skeletal muscle tissue.

(D) parasympathetic

3. The parasympathetic nervous system decreases all of the following EXCEPT

(A) digestion*

(B) heart rate

(D) respiratory rate --diameter of airways

4. The plasma membrane consists of

(A) proteins only

(B) phospholipids only

(D) proteins, carbohydrates and phospholipids

5. Which of the following organelles is the site of steroid hormone synthesis like estrogen and testosterone?

(A) ribosomes

(B) mitochondria*

(D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum**

6. How many chromosomes are present in a somatic cell?

(A) 23

(B) 30

(D) 46*

7. The outermost layer of the meninges is the

(A) pia mater--inner

(B) dura mater*

(D) arachnoid mater--middle

8. The portion of the brain stem that is continuous with the spinal cord is the

(A) pons

(B) midbrain

(D) medulla oblongata*

9. Choose the area of the brain that regulates posture and balance and is essential for

all skilled motor activities.

(A) thalamus--pain, temp., light touch & pressure, awareness & acquisition of knowledge/cognition

(B) midbrain--muscle

(D) cerebellum*--cognition, voluntary muscle contraction, equilibrium

10. All of the following are structural classifications of joints EXCEPT

(A) fibrous

(B) synovial

(D) cartilaginous

11. An example of a flat bone is the

(A) femur--long bone

(B) vertebrae--irregular bone

(D) cranial bone*

12. The function of osteogenic cells include

(A) to breakdown bone--osteoclast

(B) to develop into osteoblasts*

(D) to deposit calcium on bone

13. Neurons that conduct nerve impulses from the receptors to the central nervous system are

(A) interneurons--association, connect sensory to motor

(B) motor neurons--efferent, send motor nerve impulse to muscle & glands

(D) association neurons

14. All of the following are functions of the nervous system EXCEPT

(A) sensing changes

(B) storing potassium*--brain & cranial nerve

(D) responding to changes

15. The charge difference between the outside and the inside of the plasma membrane of a neuron at rest is called the

(A) action potential--a sequence of rapidly occuring events that decreases & eventually reverse membrane potential/depolarization & then restore it to resting state/repolarization

(B) graded potential--changes in membrane potential that vary in size, as opposed to being all-or-none/A change in the electrical potential on the membrane of an excitable cell (e.g. a nerve cell) in response to a stimulus, and where the magnitude of change is proportional to the strength of the stimulus.

(D) resting membrane potential*

16. The maintenance of relatively stable conditions within the body is known as

(A) growth

(B) homeostasis*

(D) responsiveness

17. In a negative feedback system, the response of the effector to a stimulus

(A) reverses the original stimulus*

(B) enhances the original stimulus--positive

(D) does not change the original stimulus

18. In the anatomical position, the subject

(A) is lying face down

(B) has his/her arms folded on the chest

(D) is standing upright facing the observer with the palms forward*

19. The process in which the strength of a sensation decreases during a prolonged stimulation is called

(A) refraction

(B) relaxation

(D) accommodation

20. The “white” of the eye is called the

(A) sclera*

(B) retina

(D) conjunctiva

21. Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium?

(A) cochlea

(B) organ of Corti

(D) maculae of the vestibule*

22. Which of the following structures is part of the central nervous system?

(A) ganglia

(B) spinal cord*--brain, neurons

(D) cranial nerve

23. Choose which white matter tract of the spinal cord that carries sensory information.

(A) columnar tracts

(B) ascending tracts*--mechanoreceptor

(D) descending tracts--carry motor info

24. Where is the location of cerebrospinal fluid?

(A) epidural space

(B) subdural space

(D) subarachnoid space*

25. Which of the following is an epithelial tissue?

(A) bone

(B) blood

(D) serous membrane

26. Where is the MOST common location of adipose tissue?

(A) in between joints

(B) greater peritoneum

(D) subcutaneous layer of the skin*--internal organ, bone

27. The cells that can be found in a cartilage include

(A) neuroglial

(B) osteoblasts

(D) chondrocytes*--lacuna

28. Choose the cell that functions to dissolve bone.

(A) osteocyte

(B) osteoclast*

(D) osteoprogenitor

29. The femur is described as which type of bone?

(A) flat bone

(B) long bone*

(D) sesamoid bone

30. Which of the following contribute to bone remodelling and growth?

(A) glucagon

(B) vitamin E

(D) epinephrine

1. Define

a. sensation (2 Marks)

b. adaptation (2 Marks)

2. Classify only SIX (6) receptors according to the type of stimulus they detect. (6 Marks)

3. Give THREE (3) differences between the autonomic and the somatic nervous system. (6 Marks)

4. Briefly explain the pupil dilatation and constriction in the eye? (6 Marks)

5. a. State the components of the gray and white matter of the central nervous system? (2 Marks)

b. Define reflex arc. (1 Mark)

c. List the basic components of a reflex arc. (5 Marks)

Question 1

Identify and summarise the functions of the principle parts of the brain. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Identify and summarise the principle features of the THREE (3) types of muscle tissues. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Identify the type, location and function of neuroglial cells. (20 Marks)

Aug 2014

1. Which of the following are primarily studies of physiology as opposed to anatomy?

(A) identifying the factors that affect blood pressure*

(B) finding the location of the biceps femoris muscle--anatomy

(D) identifying types of tissues present in the walls of the intestinal tract--not physiology studies

2. Which of the following best describes the relationship between stomach and urinary bladder?

(A) The stomach is inferior to the urinary bladder.

(B) The stomach is anterior to the urinary bladder.

(D) The stomach is proximal to the urinary bladder.

3. The body system that distributes oxygen and nutrients to cells and carries carbon dioxide and wastes away from cells is the

(A) endocrine system

(B) respiratory system

(D) cardiovascular system*--circulatory

4. Cells move sodium ions from the cytoplasm to the extracellular fluid where the sodium concentration is much higher than in the cytoplasm. How will sodium ions be moved out of the cells?

(A) osmosis

(B) active transport*--concentration of Na+ ions is greater in extracellular fluid so the movement of Na+ from the cytoplasm to extracellular fluid is against the concentration gradient, require energy

(D) facilitated diffusion-- Na+ move into

5. Which cell organelle is the site of fatty acid, phospholipid and steroid synthesis?

(A) cytoskeleton

(B) mitochondria

(D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum*

6. The barrier between a cell and its environment is the

(A) cytosol--semifluid of cytoplasm

(B) cytoplasm

(D) plasma membrane*

7. Ceruminous glands produce

(A) milk

(B) sweat

(D) ear wax*--cerumen

8. Arrange the layers of the epidermis in order from most superficial to deepest.

I. stratum spinosum

II. stratum granulosum

III. stratum corneum

IV. stratum basale

V. stratum lucidum

(A) IV, I, II, V, III

(B) III, V, I, II, IV

(D) III, V, II, I, IV*

9. Which of the following cell producing the pigment responsible for skin color?

(A) adipocytes

(B) merkel cells

(D) keratinocytes

10. Spongy bone

(A) is arranged in osteons

(B) houses red bone marrow*

(D) is located primarily in long bones

11. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

(A) bones of the skull*

(B) bones of the pectoral girdle

(D) bones of the upper extremity

12. Which of the following hormones is most important in regulating the movement of Ca2+ between the blood and the bones?

(A) estrogen

(B) calcitriol

(D) parathyroid hormone*--secreted if Ca2+ fa;;s, PTH gene is turned on & more PTH is secreted, increases osteoclast activity, kidney retains Ca2+, calcitriol is produced

Calcitonin hormone is secreted from partafollicular cells in thyroid if Ca2+ too high, osteoclast activity is inhibited, bone formation by osteoblasts increases

13. A student examining a joint observes collagen-rich connective tissue fibers linking the bones, but finds no synovial cavity. Which structural classification fits the observed joint?

(A) fibrous*

(B) synovial

(D) cartilaginous--fibro/hyaline cartilage

14. Which of the following is a functional classification of joints and applies to joints that allow a wide range of motion?

(A) diarthrosis*

(B) synarthrosis--imovable

(D) amphiarthrosis--slightly movable

15. A person tilting her head back so that she can up at the stars ____ her head on her neck.

(A) flexes

(B) adducts

(D) laterally flexes

16. Which of the following does NOT happen during a muscle contraction?

(A) The sarcomere shortens.(2)

(B) The thick and thin filaments shorten.*--no change

(D) The myosin heads pull the thin filaments toward the M line.(1)

17. The ability of a muscle tissue to respond to chemical released from nerve cells.

(A) irritability

(B) excitability*--receive stimulation

(D) extensibility--The ability of muscle tissue to be elongated or stretched.

18. The primary function of muscle is

(A) conversion of heat energy into chemical energy.

(B) conversion of heat energy into mechanical energy.

(D) conversion of chemical energy into mechanical energy.*

19. A major organ that receives sympathetic stimulation, but not parasympathetic stimulation is the

(A) lung

(B) liver--both

(D) kidney*

Which target organ is NOT affected by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? adrenal medulla

Which organ receives major input from the sympathetic, but not parasympathetic, division? skin

20. Which of the following is function of Schwann cells?

(A) produce myelin sheath*

(B) phagocytic the microbe

(D) produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

21. Action potentials

(A) arise slowly and are observed primarily in muscle cell.

(B) allow an impulse to travel over long or short distances.*

(D) arise when a stimulus is strong enough to cell produce hormone.--sodium channel open

22. The following are functions hypothalamus EXCEPT

(A) directly monitors thought.*

(B) controlling body temperature.

(D) functions in regulation of emotional and behavioral patterns.

controls ANS, produces hormone, emotion, behavioral, eat&drink, body temp, regulates circadian rhythms&states of conciousness

23. Which section of the brain is the primary area for the control of cardiovascular center?

(A) pons

(B) thalamus

(D) medulla oblongata*--+respiratory center

24. Which is TRUE about function of spinal cords?

(A) processing reflexes*

(B) processing information

(D) contraction of cardiovascular muscles

25. Because the principal active ingredient in tobacco is nicotine, you might expect smoking will enhance the effects of

(A) acetylcholine on any postganglionic neurons.

(B) norepinephrine on the heart and blood vessels.*

(D) norepinephrine on most sympathetic visceral effectors.

26. Which type of neurotransmitter produce by preganglionic neurons in the autonomic nervous system?

(A) serotonin

(B) bradykinin

(D) norepinephrine

27. Which of the following is NOT example of an autonomic response?

(A) Tapping your friend’s shoulder to get her attention.*

(B) Dilating your pupils when you walk into a dark room.

(D) Constricting the blood vessels in your hand when you place it in ice water.

28. Each of the following is a special sense EXCEPT

(A) sight

(B) smell

(D) sound

29. Which of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation?

(A) sour

(B) salty

(D) peppery*

30. Which of the following are cells that respond to changes in head position in relation to gravity?

(A) cone receptors

(B) macula receptors

(D) free nerve endings receptors*

1. a. List the TWO (2) differences between autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system . (4 Marks)

b. Determine the SIX (6) parasympathetic responses (6 Marks)

2. a. Determine the TWO (2) types of cell and it’s functions in bone. (4 Marks)

b. Explain SIX (6) functions of bone. (6 Marks)

3. a. Describe the functions of membrane proteins. (5 Marks)

b. Determine general features about epithelial tissue. (5 Marks)

Question 1

Elaborate on deep of wound healing process. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Compare and contrast between the THREE (3) types of muscle tissue. Give the appropriate illustrations to support the answers. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss the structures and functions of the blood-brain barrier. (20 Marks)

Jan 2014

1. During cell division, the nucleus is split “apart” or split “up” into two separate portions. Which of the following terms refers to this phase? telophase

(A) prophase

(B) anaphase--sister chromatids

(D) metaphase

2. Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

(A) control of blood glucose

(B) control of blood pressure--negative

(D) control of contraction childbirth*

3. Arrange the following structures below from the simplest to the most complex structure

I. trachea

II. oxygen molecule

III. goblet cell

IV. pseudostratified columnar epithelium

V. mitochondria

VI. respiratory system

(A) I, VI, III, II, V, IV

(B) II, V, III, IV, I, VI*

(D) III, I, V, VI, IV, II

4. The thoracic cavity lies is __________ to the abdominopelvic cavity

(A) inferior

(B) superior*

(D) ventral (anterior)

5. Diagram A represents a structure of the following epithelial tissue

(A) transitional*

(B) simple cuboidal

(D) pseudostratified columnar

6. Which of the following cells produce the melanin pigment?

(A) melanocytes*

(B) keratinocytes

(D) pigmentoblasts

7. Renal tubules are composed of __________ epithelium.

(A) simple cuboidal*--kidney

(B) simple columnar

(D) pseudostratified columnar

8. The ribs are connected to the sternum by

(A) elastic cartilage*

(B) hyaline cartilage

(D) dense irregular connective tissue

9. The technical name for the kneecap is

(A) tibia

(B) fibula

(D) cuboid

10. Which of the following tissue types is BEST at stretching without damaging the tissue?

(A) transitional*

(B) simple columnar

(D) pseudostratified squamous

11. Which of the following is NOT a type of synovial joints?

(A) pivot

(B) saddle

(D) gomphosis*

12. The formation of scar tissue is most directly caused by

(A) collagen*

(B) neutrophils

(D) wound contraction

13. __________ joints are capable only of side-to-side and back-and-forth movements, with only slight rotation.

(A) pivot--rotate

(B) hinge--back forth

(D) condyloid*--up down

14. Which of the following is rotational movement possible?

(A) pivot joint*

(B) hinge joint

(D) ball and socket joint

15. Individual fibers of skeletal muscle have a fine sheath of connective tissue called a

(A) fascia

(B) epimysium*

(D) endomysium

16. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of muscle tissue?

(A) irritability

(B) contractility

(D) reproducibility*

17. The role of ATP in muscle contraction is to supply energy for

(A) glycogen synthesis

(B) cellular respiration

(D) creatine phosphate synthesis

18. Cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system generally occur in cluster known as

(A) nuclei

(B) ganglia*

(D) collaterals

19. The MOST COMMON type of neurons are __________ which have several dendrites and one axon extending from the cell body.

(A) interneurons

(B) afferent neurons

(D) pseudounipolar neurons

20. The cerebrum arises from the

(A) mesencephalon

(B) prosencephalon*

(D) the cerebrum arises from a combination of these three portions

21. Which of the following is NOT a hypothalamus function?

(A) sexual response

(B) house pneumotaxic area*

(D) regulation of sleeping and wakefulness

22. Three nuclei within the medulla oblongata function as vital centers for controlling heart rate, blood pressure, and

(A) emotions

(B) body temperature

(D) water and electrolyte balance

23. The __________ is the primary relay stations for sensory information coming into the cerebral cortex.

(A) midbrain

(B) thalamus*

(D) hypothalamus

24. Which of the following is a function of the spinal cord?

I. Transmit sensory information to the cerebral cortex

II. Transmit motor commands from the cerebral cortex

III. Serve as an integration center for reflexes

(A) III only

(B) I and II

(D) I, II, and III*

25. Which of the following is NOT important in maintaining the balance of the body?

(A) choroid

(B) visual cues

(D) semicircular canals

26. Regardless of the nature of a stimulus, sensory information must be sent to the central nervous system in the form of

(A) action potentials*

(B) dendritic processes

(D) neurotransmitter molecule

27. The output side of nervous system is called

(A) exit

(B) motor*

(D) sensory

28. Which of the following is NOT a layer of the eye?

(A) sclera

(B) retina

(D) photo optic*

29. The incus is found in the

(A) inner ear--bony labyrinth

(B) middle ear*

(D) tympanic membrane

30. Olfactory tract damage would probably affect your ability to

(A) see

(B) hear

(D) feel pain

1. a. Describe the location of cerebrospinal fluid within the meninges. (2 Marks)

b. Explain how cerebrospinal fluid is produce and how it functions. (4 Marks)

b. Distinguish between the somatic and autonomic nervous system. (4 Marks)

2. a. With the help of diagrams, describe the differences in structure and function between smooth muscle and cardiac muscle. (6 Marks)

b. Determine FOUR (4) major functional characteristics of skeletal muscle. (4 Marks)

3. a. Explain relationship between central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. (1 Marks)

b. Determine THREE (3) general functions of the nervous system. (3 Marks)

c. Explain how neurons are classified on the basic of their structure. (6 Marks)

Question 1

Discuss the effects of aging on the integumentary system and explain the FOUR (4) phases of mechanism in deep wound healing. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Describe the SIX (6) subtypes of synovial joint. Answer must include the FOUR (4) major categories of movements that can occur at synovial joints and example.

(20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss how olfactory receptors and gustatory receptor cells differ in structure and function. Compare both olfactory and gustatory pathways. (20 Marks)

April 2013

1. Many scientists and physicians devote their lives to understanding how the body works. These researchers are classified as

(A) anatomists

(B) histologists

(D) immunologists

2. All of the following are primarily studies of anatomy EXCEPT

(A) finding the location of the biceps femoris muscle

(B) observing the arrangement of cells in the adrenal gland

(D) identifying types of tissues present in the walls of the intestinal tract

3. The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the

(A) skeletal and urinary systems

(B) nervous and endocrine systems*

(D) cardiovascular and endocrine systems

4. Which cell organelle is the site of fatty acid, phospholipid and steroid synthesis?

(A) mitochondria

(B) golgi complex

(D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum*

5. Which connective tissue stores triglycerides and provides cushioning and support for organs?

(A) elastic

(B) areolar

(D) adipose tissue*

6. Which tissue forms coverings, linings, and glands?

(A) adipose

(B) muscular

(D) connective

7. The epidermis

(A) is highly vascular.

(B) contains adipocytes and collagen fibers.

(D) is the deepest layer of the cutaneous membrane.

8. Sebum

(A) contains primarily carbohydrates and salts.

(B) promotes evaporation of water from the skin.

(D) is produced by sebaceous glands that are, in most cases, attached to hair follicles.*

9. Which of the following is NOT considered as an accessory structure of the skin?

(A) hair

(B) sweat glands

(D) sebaceous glands

10. Which of the following cells would be expected to be most active in replacing bone matrix lost due to an injury?

(A) leucocytes

(B) osteoblasts*

(D) erythrocytes

11. Spongy bone

(A) is arranged in osteons.

(B) houses red bone marrow.*

(D) makes bones heavier than if they had only osteons.

12. Which of the following is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

(A) sternum

(B) vertebrate

(D) pelvic girdle*

13. The scientific study of joints is referred as

(A) metalogy.

(B) arthrology.*

(D) diathrology.

14. Which of the following is a functional classification of joints and applies to joints that allow a wide range of motion?

(A) diarthrosis*

(B) synarthrosis

(D) amphiarthrosis

15. A movement of the soles medially at the intertarsal joints so that they face away from each other is known as

(A) eversion.

(B) inversion.*

(D) supination.

16. The characteristic of muscular tissue that to be stretched without damaging the tissue is

(A) elasticity.

(B) excitability.

(D) contractility.

17. Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle tissue is NOT TRUE?

(A) The scientific study of muscles is known as myology.

(B) Muscle tissue required mechanical energy changed into chemical energy to make movement.*

(D) Muscle tissue has many mitochondria.

18. Cardiac muscle tissue

(A) is autorhythmic.*

(B) is largely under voluntary control.--involuntary

(D) obtains Ca2+ required for contraction from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the interstitial fluid.

19. The somatic nervous system

(A) regulates the gastrointestinal tract.

(B) is dependent on the autonomic system for control.--ANS

(D) provides motor signals and conscious control to skeletal muscles.*

20. Neuroglia

(A) control the thought.

(B) conduct nerve impulses.

(D) are bigger cells than neurons.

21. Which of the following is NOT involved in providing protection to the spinal cord?

(A) vertebra

(B) meninges

(D) cerebrospinal fluid

22. Which of the following is NOT included in brain stem?

(A) pons

(B) thalamus*

(D) medulla oblongata

23. In comparing the somatic nervous system with the autonomic nervous system, which of the following statement is TRUE?

(A) The autonomic nervous system controls voluntary activities in skeletal muscle.

(B) The somatic nervous system controls voluntary activities in smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands.--ANS

(D) The somatic nervous system controls involuntary activities in skeletal muscle.--voluntary

24. Which of the following does NOT receive sympathetic innervation?

(A) Heart--both

(B) Kidney--sympathetic

(D) Sweat glands--sympathetic

25. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the autonomic nervous system?

(A) It operates via reflex arcs.

(B) It is regulated by the hypothalamus and brain stem.

(D) It innervates skeletal muscle to produce conscious, voluntary movements.*--somatic

26. The function of olfactory receptor is to detect

(A) pain.

(B) taste.

(D) vision.

27. Which of the following sensations would NOT be detected by a free nerve endings?

(A) pain

(B) pressure

(D) temperature

28. Cones

(A) allow color vision.*

(B) allow gray-scale vision.

(D) are concentrated at the periphery of the retina.

29. Which of the following is NOT considered to be part of the external ear?

(A) auricle

(B) ossicles*--middle ear

(D) external auditory canal

30. Which of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation?

(A) sour

(B) salty

(D) peppery*

1. a. Describe the physiological effects occur during the fight-or-flight response. (5 Marks)

b. Explain the physiological effects occur during the “rest-and-digest” activities.

(5 Marks)

2. a. Define neurology. (2 Marks)

b. Determine EIGHT (8) functions of nervous system. (8 Marks)

3. a. Explain FOUR (4) characteristics of cardiac muscle. (4 Marks)

b. Determine THREE (3) characteristics of skeletal muscle. (3 Marks)

c. Determine THREE (3) characteristics of smooth muscle. (3 Marks)

Question 1

Discuss the functions of skin and the mechanism of deep wound healing. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss the functions of skeletal system and the mechanism of repairing a fracture. (20 Marks)

Question 3

Discuss the mechanism of image formation on the retina and the mechanism by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived. (20 Marks)

Jan 2013

1. Which of the following correctly lists the levels of organization in decreasing order of complexity

(A) cellular, tissue, chemical, system, organ, organism

(B) chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism*

(D)organism, system, organ, tissue cellular, chemical

2. Which of the following best defines a cell?

(A)the basic structural and functional unit of an organism*

(B) the molecules that form the body's structure

(D)the membranes that cover organs

3. The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the

(A) nervous and endocrine systems.*

(B) nervous and cardiovascular systems.

(D) cardiovascular and respiratory systems

4. Which of the following is NOT considered to be an extracellular fluid?

(A)the fluid inside cells*

(B) the fluid inside blood vessels

(D)the fluid around the brain and spinal cord--CSF

5. The Na+ /K+ ATPase transports

(A)sodium ions out of a cell and potassium ions into a cell.*

(B) both sodium and potassium ions out of a cell.

(D)sodium ions into a cell and potassium ions out of a cell.

6. The end result of mitosis is production of

(A)one cell with twice as many organelles as the parent cell.

(B) two cells with half as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

(D)four cells with twice as much DNA as the parent cell.

7. Powerhouses of the cell, most important site of ATP production is found in

(A) centrioles

(B) mitochondria*

(D)plasma membrane

8. Meiosis differs from mitosis because

(A)meiosis occurs only in somatic cells.

(B)synapsis over occurs in metaphase I.--prophase I

(D)gene exchange between sister chromatids may occur in prophase I.*

9. Keratin is seen in tissues that

(A)secrete mucous

(B) engulf bacteria

(D)move throughout the body.

10. Connective tissues

(A) are the least abundant tissues and are sparsely distributed in the body.

(B) form coverings and linings.--epithelial

(D) are composed of cells separated by an extracellular substance known as the matrix.*

11. The connective tissue that has a liquid matrix is

(A) adipose tissue

(B) blood*--plasma

(D)bone

12. Which of the following is NOT classified as an epithelial membrane?

(A)mucous membrane

(B) cutaneous membrane

(C)serous membrane

(D)synovial membrane*

13. The function of keratin is to

(A)make skin hard and brittle.

(B) make skin tough and waterproof.*

(D)provided added pigment.

14. All of the following are part of the integumentary system EXCEPT the

(A) epidermis

(B) dermis

(C)subcutaneous layer

(D)hair and nails*

15. Which layer of the epidermis consists of 25-30 layers of dead, flattened keratinocytes?

(A)stratum corneum*

(B)stratum lucidum

(C)stratum granulosum.

(D)stratum spinosum.

16. Apocrine sudoriferous glands

(A) are really holocrine glands.

(B) are most active before puberty.

(D) are found in the axillae, inguinal areas, areolae and the bearded regions of the face.*

17. The alignment of osteons in compact bone

(A)is perpendicular to the axis of a long bone.

(B) is unaffected by fractures.

(D)is along lines of physical stress on a long bone.*

18. Which structures allow communication between blood vessels and nerves in the periosteum and endosteum?

(A) canaliculi.

(B) perforating canals*

(D)lacuna

19. Which of the following is characteristic of short bones?

(E) Their width is greater than their length.

(F) They include the femur and humerus.

(G)They include the patella and scapula.--scapula flat bone

(H)They consist mostly of spongy bone.*

20. Which of the following is a functional classification of joints and applies to joints that allow a wide range of motion?

(A) amphiarthrosis

(B) diarthrosis*

(C)synarthrosis

(D)fibrous

21. A muscle fibre (myofiber) is a muscle

(A) contractile unit.

(B) cell.

(D)sarcomere.*

22. The outermost extension of deep connective tissue that surrounds a muscle is the

(A) endomysium.

(B) epimysium.*

(D) aponeurosis.

23. The sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle tissue

(A)stores Ca2+ ions required for muscle contraction.*

(B) is called rough endoplasmic reticulum in other tissues.

(D)is a thread of protein running the length of the muscle cell.

24. Muscular atrophy

(A)is in increase in muscle mass due to increased numbers of myofibrils.

(B) is an increase in muscle mass due to increased numbers of myofibers.

(D)is the result of overuse of muscles.

25. Most of the neurons in the brain and spinal cord are

(A)unipolar neurone

(B) bipolar neuron

(D)Multipolar neurone*

26. The spinal cord

(A)is flattened somewhat laterally.

(B) is characterized by thoracic and sacral enlargements.

(D)is contiguous with the medulla oblongata.*

27. The cerebellum

(A)is located posterior to the brain stem and inferior to the cerebrum.*

(B) initiates voluntary skeletal muscle contractions.

(D)has a superficial layer of white matter.

28. Organs that have dual innervation receive motor impulses from the

(A)somatic and autonomic nervous systems.

(B) parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.*

(C)somatic and enteric nervous systems.

(D) autonomic and enteric nervous systems.

29. The area of highest visual acuity is the

(A) central fovea.*

(B) optic disc.

(D)pigmented layer of retina.

30. Which of the following lists of tastes in order of increasing thresholds?

(A)bitter > sour > sweet = salt

(B) bitter < sour < sweet = salt*

(C)sweet > salt > bitter > sour

(D)sweet < salt < bitter < sour

1. Elaborate on FIVE(5) types of synovial joints. (10 Marks)

2. Draw a flow chart of the formation, circulation and absorption of cerebrospinal

fluid. (10 Marks)

3 With the help of diagrams, describe the structure and classification of neurons.

(10 Marks)

Question 1

Discuss the classification of epithelial tissues. Your answer must include ONE (1)

example for each group and its function. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss the physiology of hearing. (20 Marks)

Question 3

With the help of diagrams, describe the structure and characteristic of smooth muscle.

(20 Marks)

July 2012

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of plasma membrane proteins?

(A) transport molecules across the membrane

(B) catalyze chemical reactions

(D) act as cell-identity markers

2. Adam and Omar are studying for their anatomy and physiology exam. They are confused about cytoplasm and cytosol. Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between those parts of the cell?

(A) The cytosol includes everything between the plasma membrane and the nucleus.

(B) The cytoplasm is the watery fluid inside the cell.

(D) The cytoplasm includes the cytosol, which is a watery fluid inside the cell.*

3. The end result of mitosis is a production of

(A) one cell with twice as many organelles as the parent cell.

(B) two cells with half as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

(D) two cells identical to the parent cell.*

4. Choose the CORRECT statement about cell membranes

(A) Desmosomes function is to strengthen cell membranes.

(B) Ion channels function as gates, opening or closing to specific ions.*

(D) Cholesterol is not a necessary component of the cell membrane.

5. The tubular transport system that moves molecules throughout the cells is the

(A) mitochondria

(B) ribosomes

(D) endoplasmic reticulum*

6. Tendons and ligaments must withstand tension along the axis of their fibers. These structures are composed of

(A) cartilage

(B) dense regular*

(D) elastic

7. Chromosomes align midway between centrioles during which phase of mitosis?

(A) prophase

(B) anaphase

(D) telophase

8. The connective tissue that has a liquid matrix is

(A) adipose tissue

(B) blood*

(D) dense regular

9. The cell that directly and specifically secrete mucus is called

(A) epithelial cell

(B) endocrine cell

(D) exocrine cell

10. The function of keratin is to

(A) make the skin hard and brittles.

(B) make the skin toughs and waterproofs.*

(D) store a vitamin A.

11. Which structures allow communication between blood vessels and nerves in the periosteum and endosteum?

(A) Canaliculi

(B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals*

(D) gap junctions

12. The yellowish colour of some person’s skin is due to

(A) lack of blood supply.--pale

(B) carotene.*

(D) hemoglobin.

13. Which of the following bone types is typically found in ligaments or tendons?

(A) Irregular*

(B) Flat

(D) Sesamoid

14. Which of the following is a characteristic of short bones?

(A) Their width is greater than their length--width=length

(B) They include the patella and scapula

(D) They include all of the carpal bones*

15. The femur inserts into the pelvic girdle at the

(A) patella

(B) trochanter

(C) acetabulum*--acetabulum is the cup-shaped socket on the lateral aspect of the pelvis, which articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint

(D) condyle

16. When you are sitting normally in a chair, upon which bones does your weight rest?

(A) ilia

(B) ischia*--sit bones

(D) coccygeal

17. When the elbow is flexed and the palm is turned superiorly so that it could hold a cup of soup, it is said to be

(A) inverted.

(B) pronated.

(D) opposed.

18. What type of joint is the sagittal suture?

(A) fibrous*--connective tissue

(B) syndesmosis

(D) synchondrosis

19. The sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle tissue

(A) stores Ca2+ ions required for muscle contraction.*

(B) is called rough endoplasmic reticulum in other tissues.

(D) removes Ca2+ from the sarcoplasm so that an action potential can be generated.

20. The type of muscle found in the irises of the eyes is called

(A) Visceral smooth muscle.

(B) Multiunit smooth muscle.*--large airways to the lungs, in the large arteries, the arrector pili muscles associated with hair follicles

(D) Skeletal muscle.

21. Atrocities

(A) support neurons in the peripheral nervous system.

(B) form the blood-brain barrier.*

(D) form myelin on central nervous system neurons.

22. Cerebrospinal fluid

(A) is an opaque, yellowish liquid.

(B) provides some mechanical protection for the brain.*

(D) is made by microglia.

23. The cell that conduct messages towards the brain are the

(A) motor neurons

(B) interneurons

(D) sensory neurons*

24. The dermis

(A) is superficial to the epidermis.

(B) is deep to the subcutaneous layer.

(D) is avascular and poorly innervated.

25. Where is visual and auditory reflexes centered?

(A) medulla

(B) pons

(D) diencephalon

26. Which brain area acts to regulate body temperature?

(A) thalamus

(B) hypothalamus*

(D) cerebrum

27. Which of these statements about the sense of smell is FALSE?

(A) Olfactory receptor cells are bipolar neurons

(B) Olfactory receptors adapt slowly--rapid

(D) The main areas of the brain that interpret the sense of smell lie in the temporal and frontal lobes*--parietal

28. The ability to sense body position is related to

(A) proprioceptors receptors*

(B) pain receptors

(D) general receptors

29. Which cranial nerve DOES NOT innervate eye muscles?

(A) CN III

(B) CN II*

(D) CN VI

30. The auditory canal is part of the

(A) inner ear.

(B) middle ear.

(D) pinna.

1. Elaborate on the ball and socket joint of synovial joint. (10 Marks)

2. Briefly describe the three types of cartilage. (10 Marks)

3 With the aid of diagrams, describe the structure and classification of neurons.

(10 Marks)

Question 1

Discuss the classification of epithelial tissues. Your answer must include ONE (1)

example for each group and its function. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss the FIVE (5) layers epidermis of the skin. (20 Marks)

Question 3

With the aid of diagrams, describe the structure of skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle. (20 Marks)

2011/2012

1. The human liver is primarily located in the

(A) right upper quadrant of the abdominal area*

(B) left lower quadrant of the abdominal area

(D) left hypochondriac region

2. Anatomy is a term which means the study of

(A) morphology*--study of the size, shape, and structure of animals, plants, and microorganisms and of the relationships of their constituent parts

(B) physiology

(D) human functions

3. Which of the following pairs of terms is FALSE?

(A) opthalmic, eyes

(B) pectoral, chest

(D) costal, abdomen--thorax

4. Choose the CORRECT statement about cell membranes

(A) Desmosomes function is to strengthen cell membranes.

(B) Ion channels function as gates, opening or closing to specific ions.*

(D) Cholesterol is not a necessary component of the cell membrane.

5. The tubular transport system that moves molecules throughout the cells is the

(A) mitochondria

(B) ribosomes

(D) endoplasmic reticulum*

6. In what part of nucleus does ribosome production occur?

(A) within nuclear pore

(B) in the area of the nucleolus*

(D) in the centriole

7. Chromosomes align midway between centrioles during which phase of mitosis?

(A) prophase

(B) anaphase

(D) telophase

8. The kidney tubule is lined with

(A) columnar epithelium cell

(B) squamous epithelium cell

(D) ciliated epithelial cell

9. The cell that directly and specifically secrete mucus is called

(A) epithelial cell

(B) endocrine cell

(D) exocrine cell

10. Modified sweat glands, called _____________ glands, secrete wax in the ear canal.

(A) sebaceous

(B) ceruminous*--modified apocrine

(D) eccrine

11. What is the important function for melanin?

(A) absorb harmful radiation*

(B) decrease skin temperature

(D) strengthen the skin

12. The yellowish colour of some persons skin is due to

(A) lack of blood supply

(B) carotene*

(D) hemoglobin

13. The __________ is the thick white area of the nail that reflects the rapid growth of the cells below it.

(A) nail bed

(B) nail root

(D) lunula*--Within nails, the most rapidly dividing cells can be found in the_________________.

14. The outer covering of each bone is made from fibrous connective tissue known as

(A) periosteum*--The periosteum contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels that nourish compact bone. Tendons and ligaments also attach to bones at the periosteum.

(B) epiphysis

(D) articular cartilage

15. The femur inserts into the pelvic girdle at the

(A) patella

(B) trochanter

(D) condyle

16. The parietal bone can be classified as a

(A) long bone

(B) flat bone*

(D) irregular bone

17. Which joint is naturally loose, flexible and most likely to become dislocated?

(A) knee joint

(B) shoulder joint*

(D) hip joint

18. What type of joint is the sagittal suture?

(A) fibrous*

(B) syndesmosis

(D) synchondrosis

19. Moving an arm so that it traces a circle is called

(A) rotation

(B) circumduction*

(D) elevation

20. The type of muscle found in the irises of the eyes is called

(A) Visceral smooth muscle

(B) Multiunit smooth muscle*

(D) Skeletal muscle

21. Each muscle fiber (fasciculus) is directly surround by connective tissue called the

(A) endomysium

(B) fascia

(D) epimysium

22. Excessive sleeping is most likely due to the presence of too much of which neurotransmitter?

(A) GABA

(B) serotonin*

(D) noradrenaline

23. The cell that conduct messages towards the brain are the

(A) motor neurons

(B) interneurons

(D) sensory neurons*

24. The portion of the brain involved in understanding speech and using words is located in the ___________ of the cerebrum

(A) parietal lobe

(B) frontal lobe

(D) temporal lobe*

25. Where is visual and auditory reflexes centered?

(A) medulla

(B) pons

(D) diencephalon

26. Which brain area acts to regulate body temperature?

(A) thalamus

(B) hypothalamus*

(D) cerebrum

27. Which of these statements about the sense of smell is FALSE?

(A) Olfactory receptor cells are bipolar neurons.

(B) Olfactory receptors adapt slowly

(D) The main areas of the brain that interpret the sense of smell lie in the temporal and frontal lobes.*--parietal

28. The ability to sense body position is related to

(A) proprioceptors receptors*

(B) pain receptors

(D) general receptors

29. Which cranial nerve DOES NOT innervate eye muscles?

(A) CN III--oculomotor

(B) CN II*--optic, not in lect 13&14, vision

(D) CN VI--abducens

30. The auditory canal is part of the

(A) inner ear

(B) middle ear

(D) pinna

1. Elaborate on the FOUR principle cells of the epidermis? (10 Marks)

2. Briefly describe the THREE principle fibers of connective tissues. (10 Marks)

3 With the help of diagrams, describe the structure and classification of neurons.

(10 Marks)

Question 1

Discuss the classification of epithelial tissues. Your answer must include ONE example for each group and its function. (20 Marks)

Question 2

Discuss the SIX types of synovial joint. Your answer must include their movement and examples. (20 Marks)

Question 3

With the help of diagrams, describe the differences in structure and function between skeletal muscle and smooth muscle. (20 Marks)

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